- #1
arshavin
- 21
- 0
sorry for starting yet another one of these threads :p
As far as I know, cantor's diagonal argument merely says-
if you have a list of n real numbers, then you can always find a real number not belonging to the list.
But this just means that you can't set up a 1-1 between the reals, and any finite set.
How does this show there is no 1-1 between reals, and the integers?
As far as I know, cantor's diagonal argument merely says-
if you have a list of n real numbers, then you can always find a real number not belonging to the list.
But this just means that you can't set up a 1-1 between the reals, and any finite set.
How does this show there is no 1-1 between reals, and the integers?