Categories - Bland Chapter 3 - Problem 2 - Problem Set 3.1

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The discussion centers on Problem 2 from Problem Set 3.1 in Paul E. Bland's book "Rings and Their Modules," specifically regarding the category Set and the concept of initial objects. Participants clarify that the morphism from the empty set to any set B, denoted as Mor(∅, B), contains exactly one morphism, which is the empty relation. This conclusion establishes that the empty set is indeed the initial object in the category Set, as it satisfies the definition of having a unique morphism to any object in the category.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of category theory concepts, particularly initial and final objects.
  • Familiarity with the notation and terminology used in set theory, such as morphisms and relations.
  • Basic knowledge of functions and their definitions in mathematical contexts.
  • Experience with Paul E. Bland's "Rings and Their Modules" for context on the problems discussed.
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the definition and properties of initial and final objects in category theory.
  • Explore the implications of morphisms in various categories beyond Set.
  • Learn about the role of the empty set in different mathematical structures.
  • Review additional problems from Bland's "Rings and Their Modules" for deeper understanding.
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I am reading Paul E. Bland's book, "Rings and Their Modules".

I am trying to understand Section 3.1 on Categories.

At present I am working on Problem 2 in Problem Set 3.1 and I need some help in understanding the problem and its solution.

Problem 2 (Problem Set 3.1) reads as follows:https://www.physicsforums.com/attachments/3602Now in the category Set we have:

$$\mathscr{O}$$ is the class of all sets - that is the objects are sets

and

If $$A, B \in \mathscr{O} $$ then $$\text{Mor} (A,B)$$ is the set of all functions from $$A$$ to $$B$$ ...

Now Bland's definition of an initial and final object are as follows:https://www.physicsforums.com/attachments/3603

Now if $$\emptyset$$ is an initial object, then $$\text{Mor} (\emptyset, B)$$ has exactly one morphism $$f \ : \ \emptyset \rightarrow B$$ ... ...

... ... BUT ... ... how can we have a set function emanating from a set with no elements ...

Can someone please clarify this issue/problem?

Peter
 
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Hi Peter,

I have never rode such a strange thing, so I'm not really sure of what I'm going to say, but I think here could be an agreement.

If you consider the sets $A,B$ and the set $C=\{f:A\longrightarrow B \ : \ f \ \mbox{is an application}\}$

Then we know that in general $\#(C)=\#(B)^{\#(A)}$ and $\#(\emptyset)=0$, hence we can agree that $C_{\emptyset}=\{f:\emptyset \longrightarrow B \ : \ f \ \mbox{is an application}\}$ has one element.

A different question would be if this agreement make sense or not.
 
Fallen Angel said:
Hi Peter,

I have never rode such a strange thing, so I'm not really sure of what I'm going to say, but I think here could be an agreement.

If you consider the sets $A,B$ and the set $C=\{f:A\longrightarrow B \ : \ f \ \mbox{is an application}\}$

Then we know that in general $\#(C)=\#(B)^{\#(A)}$ and $\#(\emptyset)=0$, hence we can agree that $C_{\emptyset}=\{f:\emptyset \longrightarrow B \ : \ f \ \mbox{is an application}\}$ has one element.

A different question would be if this agreement make sense or not.
Thanks for the help, Fallen Angel ...

Hmmm ... not sure ... still reflecting and thinking about this matter ...

Does anyone else have a viewpoint on this ... ... ?

Peter
 
Peter said:
Thanks for the help, Fallen Angel ...

Hmmm ... not sure ... still reflecting and thinking about this matter ...

Does anyone else have a viewpoint on this ... ... ?

Peter

Hi Peter,

You've asked a very good question. The abstract definition of a function $f : A \to B$ is a relation from $A$ to $B$ (i.e., a subset $R$ of $A \times B$) such that for every $a \in A$, there is a unique $b \in B$ such that $(a,b) \in R$ (and we typically write $f(a) = b$ when $(a,b) \in R$). Hence, given an object $B$ of SET and a morphism $f \in \text{Mor}(\emptyset, B)$, $f$ is viewed as a relation from $\emptyset$ to $B$, in other words, a subset of $\emptyset \times B$. Since $\emptyset \times B = \emptyset$, $f$ is determined by the empty relation. Conversely, the empty relation gives a morphism from $\emptyset$ to $B$. Therefore, $\text{Mor}(\emptyset, B)$ has only one element. Since $B$ was an arbitrary object of SET, $\emptyset$ is the initial object of SET.
 
Euge said:
Hi Peter,

You've asked a very good question. The abstract definition of a function $f : A \to B$ is a relation from $A$ to $B$ (i.e., a subset $R$ of $A \times B$) such that for every $a \in A$, there is a unique $b \in B$ such that $(a,b) \in R$ (and we typically write $f(a) = b$ when $(a,b) \in R$). Hence, given an object $B$ of SET and a morphism $f \in \text{Mor}(\emptyset, B)$, $f$ is viewed as a relation from $\emptyset$ to $B$, in other words, a subset of $\emptyset \times B$. Since $\emptyset \times B = \emptyset$, $f$ is determined by the empty relation. Conversely, the empty relation gives a morphism from $\emptyset$ to $B$. Therefore, $\text{Mor}(\emptyset, B)$ has only one element. Since $B$ was an arbitrary object of SET, $\emptyset$ is the initial object of SET.
Thanks for the help, Euge ...

Still reflecting on what you have written, but I get the idea, I think ...

Most helpful ... thanks again ...

Peter
 

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