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## Main Question or Discussion Point

The cauchy Riemann relations can be written:

[tex]\frac{\partial f}{\partial \bar{z}}=0[/tex]

Is there an 'easy to see reason' why a function should not depend on the independent variable [itex]\bar{z}[/tex] to be differentiable?

[tex]\frac{\partial f}{\partial \bar{z}}=0[/tex]

Is there an 'easy to see reason' why a function should not depend on the independent variable [itex]\bar{z}[/tex] to be differentiable?