- #1
- 23
- 0
In circular motion why the centripetal and centrifugal not get cancelling. .?
If they act on the same object, and are of equal magnitude, they do cancel. That is the case in a rotating frame for every object at rest in that frame.In circular motion why the centripetal and centrifugal not get canceling. .?
The reaction to a force never cancels that force, because it acts on a different object.It depends which centrifugal force you mean. If you mean the force that is reactive to the centripetal force then yes (like two bodies connected by a string, the tension applies centripetal force and centrifugal force and these cancel).
No, centrifugal and centripetal are never at right angle to each other.However if you mean the force that would cause an object to fly away if centripetal force was stopped then I don't believe these do cancel since they would be at right angles to one another?
That is correct, That's why in the frame where the mass moves on a circle (accelerates) there is no force that cancels the centripetal force.If they did cancel the object wouldn't accelerate?
That is only true for inertial frames of reference.In addition to what has been said already: in classical physics every force belongs to a force pair (the 3d law of Newton).
They compensate each other in terms of the net force on an isolated system (momentum conservation). Since total net force on an isolated system is zero, all internal forces (momentum transfers) must "cancel". Unfortunately this often is confused with: "forces on an individual part of the system canceling each other".Those two forces compensate each other in a certain way,
The laws of Newton are not valid (or at least, not intended) for non-inertial frames*.That is only true for inertial frames of reference.
Thanks for the precision!They compensate each other in terms of the net force on an isolated system (momentum conservation). Since total net force on an isolated system is zero, all internal forces (momentum transfers) must "cancel". Unfortunately this often is confused with: "forces on an individual part of the system canceling each other".
The first two are. Only the the third (and thus momentum conservation) fails in non-inertial frames. But that is good enough for some applications.The laws of Newton are not valid (or at least, not intended) for non-inertial frames*.![]()
The first two [laws of Newton] are [valid (or at least, intended) for non-inertial frames]. Only the the third (and thus momentum conservation) fails in non-inertial frames. But that is good enough for some applications.
Your cause-philosophy is irrelevant to physics. It doesn't affect the quantitative results. Or do you see the "cause of the force" appearing somewhere in F=ma ?, some introduce a fictitious force that is exerted by a non-existing cause.
Two big problems here: Not some, lots. And not :uhh:,In order to use that law wrt a rotating reference system, some introduce a fictitious force that is exerted by a non-existing cause. :uhh:
That was over three hundred years ago. The sciences place much less emphasis on the "great works" than do the humanities. Those initial thoughts motivate rather than dictate in the sciences. The Newtonian physics of today is quite removed from the physics that Newton developed. Just because Newton thought that non-inertial frames were somehow invalid does not mean that we think that way today.The Principia's Scholium clearly shows that this law was not intended for such (mis-)use:
Some people seem to confuse physics with some kind of religion, where you have to study and exactly obey the wise words of some ancient prophet.That was over three hundred years ago. The sciences place much less emphasis on the "great works" than do the humanities.
Newton saw further by standing on the shoulders of giants, and others saw even further by standing on his.The Newtonian physics of today is quite removed from the physics that Newton developed.
I don't even see him saying that in the quoted text, but it is ancient language. He seems to explain the difference between proper acceleration (which he calls "true motion") and coordinate acceleration (which he calls "relative motion"). If he actually means true vs. relative velocity (absolute motion) then his text is simply outdated.Just because Newton thought that non-inertial frames were somehow invalid.
Your cause-philosophy is irrelevant to physics. It doesn't affect the quantitative results. Or do you see the "cause of the force" appearing somewhere in F=ma ?
I have no definite opinion about that matter, except that so far I did not see such a proof of superiority, which makes me doubt it. Therefore I already planned to start a thread with a challenge to those who make such claims, so they can show it (and convince me!). I will start that topic soon, thanks for reminding me of it!Two big problems here: Not some, lots. And not :uhh:,
Extending Newtonian mechanics to non-inertial reference frames is a very powerful technique. For example, I challenge you to explain the physics of the Earth's oceans and the Earth's atmosphere from the perspective of a non-accelerating, non-rotating frame of reference to the extent needed to model the tides and hurricanes to the accuracy obtained by using an accelerating and rotating frame of reference.
I merely showed that the laws of Newton as intended by him are invalid for non-inertial frames, as his laws refer to forces that can be related to causes. That is what I understand "classical physics" to be about (not only about that of course). However, other definitions of classical physics sure do exist.That was over three hundred years ago. The sciences place much less emphasis on the "great works" than do the humanities. Those initial thoughts motivate rather than dictate in the sciences. The Newtonian physics of today is quite removed from the physics that Newton developed. Just because Newton thought that non-inertial frames were somehow invalid does not mean that we think that way today.
"Causes" is so vague it can mean anything. Newton meant interaction forces that obey his 3rd law, but his ideas where extended and generalized by others.harrylin said:I merely showed that the laws of Newton as intended by him are invalid for non-inertial frames, as his laws refer to forces that can be related to causes.
Yeah, you might want to catch up on the 300 years that came after Newton.harrylin said:However, other definitions of classical physics sure do exist.
Yeah, and you adding to it:Sigh... there is so much confusion on this topic.
They both exist in the co-rotating frame and cancel each other in that frame,Centripetal force and centrifugal force do not cancel. They cannot, because they don't even exist in the same frame.
No they are not. Not in any sense.In fact, they are the same force in the sense that...[more of 'not even wrong']
Already done![..] you might want to catch up on the 300 years that came after Newton.
I have no definite opinion about that matter, except that so far I did not see such a proof of superiority, which makes me doubt it. Therefore I already planned to start a thread with a challenge to those who make such claims, so they can show it (and convince me!). I will start that topic soon, thanks for reminding me of it![..]
The laws of Newton are not valid (or at least, not intended) for non-inertial frames*.![]()
I think Newton did use the principle of equivalence in his Principia.
http://www.cpt.univ-mrs.fr/~rovelli/book.pdf, p42, footnote 19
In circular motion body doesn't "stay out there". It is in constant motion around its circular path. Because its velocity is constantly changing in direction, the body accelerates and is not in equilibrium. If there were an additional outward force(centrifugal force) that balanced inward force, the net force would be zero and the body would move in a straight line , not in circle. In an inertial frame of reference there is no such thing as centrifugal force.
That is what happens in the co-rotating frame, where the object is at rest.If there were an additional outward force(centrifugal force) that balanced inward force, the net force would be zero
In an inertial frame of reference there is no inertial centrifugal force on the object in circular motion. But there can be centrifugal interaction forces on other objects, exerted by the object in circular motion.In an inertial frame of reference there is no such thing as centrifugal force.