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## Main Question or Discussion Point

Hi, I would like to know if the inequality sign plays any role to the following optimization problem:

minimize f0(x)

subject to f1(x)>=0

where both f0(x) and f1(x) are convex. The standard form of these problems require a constraint such as: f1(x)<=0, but i am interested in the opposite condition (f1(x)>=0) and solving it using the standard Lagrangian method and KKT conditions. Is this right?

Any help would be useful. Thanks in advance!

minimize f0(x)

subject to f1(x)>=0

where both f0(x) and f1(x) are convex. The standard form of these problems require a constraint such as: f1(x)<=0, but i am interested in the opposite condition (f1(x)>=0) and solving it using the standard Lagrangian method and KKT conditions. Is this right?

Any help would be useful. Thanks in advance!