Hi, I would like to know if the inequality sign plays any role to the following optimization problem: minimize f0(x) subject to f1(x)>=0 where both f0(x) and f1(x) are convex. The standard form of these problems require a constraint such as: f1(x)<=0, but i am interested in the opposite condition (f1(x)>=0) and solving it using the standard Lagrangian method and KKT conditions. Is this right? Any help would be useful. Thanks in advance!