- #1

samh

- 46

- 0

Suppose f(x) has period 2L, that is, f(x+2L)=f(x) for all x. If we let t=pi*x/L, and

g(t) = f(x) = f(L*t/pi)

then, as you can verify, g has period 2pi.

How do you show that that's true?!? How do you prove it? For the life of me I can't see how this holds despite the fact that I've wasted the past two hours working at it. I can't think of a technical explanation for it (a proof) OR an intuitive one... Please help.