Changing variables on an integral question

  • Context: Graduate 
  • Thread starter Thread starter dmatador
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Integral Variables
Click For Summary
SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on the integration of an even function f(y) over the interval from negative infinity to zero, specifically the integral \int_{-\infty}^{0} yf(y) dy. It confirms that one can change variables by setting z = -y, allowing the transformation to - \int_{0}^{\infty} zf(z) dz. This method leverages the property of even functions, where f(y) = f(-y), to simplify the integration process. The conclusion is that the limit can indeed be taken in the positive direction while negating the y variables within the integral.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of even functions in mathematics
  • Familiarity with integral calculus
  • Knowledge of variable substitution techniques in integrals
  • Basic grasp of limits in calculus
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the properties of even and odd functions in calculus
  • Learn advanced techniques for variable substitution in integrals
  • Explore the concept of improper integrals and their convergence
  • Investigate the application of limits in integration, particularly in definite integrals
USEFUL FOR

Students and professionals in mathematics, particularly those studying calculus and integral theory, as well as educators looking for clear examples of variable substitution with even functions.

dmatador
Messages
120
Reaction score
1
Say you have an even function f(y) (that is, f(y) = f(-y)) and you want to integrate

[tex] \int_ \infty^0 yf(y) dy [/tex]

From negative infinity to 0 (sorry, latex wasn't doing what i wanted)

Is it allowed to take the limit to infinity in the positive direction, and negate the y variables within the integral? Or, rather, is there a way to utilize the fact that f(y) is even in order to change variables to end up with
[tex] -\int_0^\infty yf(y) dy [/tex]

Sorry if this is vague. I'm mostly interested in dealing with the limit. Thank you for any feedback.
 
Last edited:
Physics news on Phys.org
Yes, you can do that.

This is how the formal substition goes, given that f is an even function:
Set z=-y

Then:
[tex]\int_{-\infty}^{0}yf(y)dy=\int_{\infty}^{0}(-z)f(-z)(-dz}=\int_{\infty}^{0}zf(z)dz=-\int_{0}^{\infty}zf(z)dz[/tex]
 
arildno said:
Yes, you can do that.

Thank you very much. I was stuck because I was making these steps based on intuition and couldn't totally convince myself.
 

Similar threads

  • · Replies 11 ·
Replies
11
Views
3K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
3K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
2K
  • · Replies 29 ·
Replies
29
Views
5K
  • · Replies 13 ·
Replies
13
Views
3K
  • · Replies 15 ·
Replies
15
Views
4K
  • · Replies 20 ·
Replies
20
Views
4K
  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
3K
  • · Replies 21 ·
Replies
21
Views
2K
Replies
3
Views
2K