Charged particle near a grounded plane

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Reshma
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This one is from Griffiths. A toughie!

A point charge q of mass m is released at a distance d from an infinite grounded conducting plane. How long will it take for the charge to hit the plane?

I chose a distance 'x' as a height above the plane. So the force on 'q' is given by:
[tex]F = {-1\over 4\pi \epsilon_0}{q^2\over 4x^2}[/tex]

And equal that to force equation:
[tex]F = m\frac{d^2 x}{d t^2}[/tex]

So,
[tex]\frac{d^2 x}{d t^2} = \frac{-q^2}{16\pi \epsilon_0 x^2 m}[/tex]

I need to solve this equation for 't'. Any clues?
 
Oh, by the way, for once Griffiths has been kind enough to provide the solution for this problem :biggrin:.

[tex]t = \left({\pi d \over q}\right) \sqrt{2\pi \epsilon_0 md}[/tex]

This should be helpful.
 
Reshma said:
This one is from Griffiths. A toughie!

A point charge q of mass m is released at a distance d from an infinite grounded conducting plane. How long will it take for the charge to hit the plane?

I chose a distance 'x' as a height above the plane. So the force on 'q' is given by:
[tex]F = {-1\over 4\pi \epsilon_0}{q^2\over 4x^2}[/tex]

And equal that to force equation:
[tex]F = m\frac{d^2 x}{d t^2}[/tex]

So,
[tex]\frac{d^2 x}{d t^2} = \frac{-q^2}{16\pi \epsilon_0 x^2 m}[/tex]

I need to solve this equation for 't'. Any clues?

You will find the substitution y=ln x useful.

-Dan
 
You can multiply both sides by 2 dx/dt. This will leave you with d/dt((dx/dt)2) on the left side and d/dt(something else) on the right side, which you can easily integrate to get a first order ODE.
 
topsquark said:
You will find the substitution y=ln x useful.

-Dan
Did not work :frown: .

StatusX said:
You can multiply both sides by 2 dx/dt. This will leave you with d/dt((dx/dt)2) on the left side and d/dt(something else) on the right side, which you can easily integrate to get a first order ODE.

OK, I multiplied it by v = dx/dt on both sides.

[tex]v {dv\over dt} = \left({q^2\over 16\pi \epsilon_0 m}\right)\left({-1\over x^2}\right){dx\over dt}[/tex]

Taking [itex]A = {q^2\over 16\pi \epsilon_0 m}[/itex]

[tex]{d\over dt}\left({1\over 2} v^2\right) = {d\over dt}\left({A\over x}\right)[/tex]

So,
[tex]{1\over 2} v^2 = {A\over x} + \mbox{constant}[/tex]

I need to bring this 'v' in terms of 'x' to integrate. How do I proceed?
 
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Oh dear, no replies...:rolleyes: .

I proceeded with evalutions and I think I figured out the answer.

When v = 0; x = d. So, constant = (A/d)
Hence,
[tex]v^2 = 2A\left({1\over x} - {1\over d}\right)[/tex]

[tex]{dx\over dt} = \sqrt{{2A\over d}}\sqrt{{d-x\over x}}[/tex]

[tex]\int_0^d {\sqrt{x}\over \sqrt{d-x}}dx = \sqrt{{2A\over d}}t[/tex]

I just need to solve this for 't' but I'm not able to find a suitable substitution for the integrand terms to evaluate them. Any CLUES?
 
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put d-x = t square . u will get integeral of the form integeral(dt/(d-t^2)^1/2) which is a standard integeral . i don't know there might be a shorter way ... but u ll get the answer through this
 
Hi Reshma,

You are on the right track. Along the lines gandharva suggested, you might try a substitution of the form [tex]x = d \sin^2{\theta}[/tex].
 
Thanks, Physics Monkey and gandharva. I got the answer.