Coefficient of drag of a ping pong ball

Click For Summary
The discussion centers on the coefficient of drag (C_d) of a ping pong ball and its implications for motion. It is clarified that if C_d equals zero, the ball would not experience drag and would only be affected by gravity, leading to downward acceleration. Conversely, a high C_d indicates significant drag force, potentially allowing the ball to rise. The conversation emphasizes the importance of understanding the forces acting on the ball, particularly distinguishing between drag and gravitational forces. Drawing free body diagrams is recommended to clarify these concepts and resolve any misunderstandings.
Dayton
Messages
5
Reaction score
0

Homework Statement



Y00J7Rb.png


This problem is from a homework assignment. The professor says that the the ping-pong ball will go up if the cd = 0 and will go down if the cd is much larger than one. Is this logic correct? I keep thinking about how if an aerodynamic car is pushed by wind, the car with the larger cd will go be pushed harder.

Homework Equations



2584a12584dcea216e766c4bbcb514eb.png


The Attempt at a Solution

 
Physics news on Phys.org
Your logic is sound: the answer supplied is incorrect

Your logic is sound and the answer that you wrote down is backwards from correct. You might have copies it wrong, or your professor might have written it down incorrectly from his notes.

Here's how to see that if C_{d} = 0, the ball drops.

The ball accelerates in the direction of the net force.

There is a downward force from gravity. The upward force is the "drag" because drag is the force from air on an object.

Rearranging your equation, F_{d} = ρv^{2}AC_{d}/2.

The net force is F_{d} - mg, upward.

If C_{d} is 0, then F_{d} is also 0, and the ball has acceleration of -mg. Gravity is the only force acting on the ball.

Clearly, when C_{d} is very large, then F_{d} is also very large and the ball is pushes upwards to infinity (and beyond.)

Hope this helps.

Dr Peter Vaughan
BASIS Peoria Physics
 
  • Like
Likes 1 person
Thanks

Ok, I thought that that reasoning was correct.

My professor replied with this when I emailed to ask if my car analogy was correct:

Just think a little bit simpler, if you have two objects that
has strong friction between them then it will hard to move
one of the object. In this case, CD >> 1.

If you do not have friction (CD = 0), then it will be
very easy to move it. In this case, Fd = mg = Cd*0.5*v*v*Area
if CD = 0, area is not zero, then v must be super larger
because mg is not zero. The ping pong ball will fly to infinite!

I just want to be sure if my logic was correct before I ask him about it again.
 
He seems to be referring to "drag" as a force that is additional to the blow dryer force and pointing downward. That is not my (nor your) interpretation. My advice: draw two free body diagrams: one with gravity down and "drag from vacuum cleaner" going up, and another with "force from vacuum cleaner" upwards and BOTH gravity and drag down. Ask him which one is correct. Than you'll know both what the problem is asking, and how to solve it.

Dr Peter Vaughan
BASIS Peoria Physics
 
  • Like
Likes 1 person
The book claims the answer is that all the magnitudes are the same because "the gravitational force on the penguin is the same". I'm having trouble understanding this. I thought the buoyant force was equal to the weight of the fluid displaced. Weight depends on mass which depends on density. Therefore, due to the differing densities the buoyant force will be different in each case? Is this incorrect?

Similar threads

  • · Replies 23 ·
Replies
23
Views
5K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
2K
  • · Replies 12 ·
Replies
12
Views
8K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
5K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
2K
Replies
1
Views
5K
  • · Replies 88 ·
3
Replies
88
Views
9K
  • · Replies 14 ·
Replies
14
Views
4K
  • · Replies 14 ·
Replies
14
Views
3K
  • · Replies 5 ·
Replies
5
Views
2K