Compact Hausdorff Spaces: Star-Isomorphic Unital C*-Algebras

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If X and Y are homeomorphic compact Hausdorff spaces, then the C*-algebras C(X) and C(Y) are star-isomorphic. The mapping C(h) defined as f ↦ f ∘ h demonstrates linearity by showing that the composition of functions preserves the vector space properties. The discussion clarifies that composition can be treated similarly to standard products in vector spaces, allowing for the verification of linearity and multiplicativity. Additionally, the mapping preserves involution, ensuring that the structure of the algebras is maintained. Finally, the unital property is confirmed as the homeomorphism h ensures continuity and a one-to-one correspondence.
HeinzBor
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Homework Statement
ismorphism between hausdorff compact spaces on C(X) to C(Y)
Relevant Equations
Standard Algebra definitions.
If ##X## and ##Y## are homeomorphic compact Hausdorff spaces, then ##C(X)## and ##C(Y)## are ##star##-isomorphic unital ##C^{*}##-algebras.

So I got the following map to work with

(AND RECALL THAT ##C(X)## and ##C(Y)## are vector spaces).
$$C(h) : C(Y) \rightarrow C(X) \ : \ f \mapsto f \circ h$$
and thus to show linearity (one of the many statements) I must show that
$$((f+ \lambda g) \circ h)(x) = (f \circ h + \lambda g \circ h) (x) \ \ \lambda \in \mathbb{C}, g \in C(Y)$$
However, I am a bit confused on how to work with this mapping, any help is appreciated..
 
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Isn't this simply the definition of the vector space property of ##C(Y)##?
 
fresh_42 said:
Isn't this simply the definition of the vector space property of ##C(Y)##?
Yea I assume I can work with the axioms of a vector space since the functions belong to C(X) and C(Y). However, I haven't had an algebra course for so long, so I am a bit confused on how to work with those definitions, when I have the composition instead of the usual product showing up. Am I allowed to just work with the composition as a standard product in a vector space?
 
You simply have ##h(x)=:y\in Y##. So if you write down the linearity in ##C(Y),## namely the linearity
$$
(f+\lambda \cdot g)(y) := f(y)+ \lambda \cdot g(y),
$$
in a function space, then you get exactly what you need. Only substitute ##y## by ##h(x).##
 
fresh_42 said:
You simply have ##h(x)=:y\in Y##. So if you write down the linearity in ##C(Y),## namely the linearity
$$
(f+\lambda \cdot g)(y) := f(y)+ \lambda \cdot g(y),
$$
in a function space, then you get exactly what you need. Only substitute ##y## by ##h(x).##
Ahhh yes ! of course.. $$X \rightarrow V$$ can be given the structure of a vector space over $$\mathbb{F}$$, if for any $$f,g : X \rightarrow V$$, $$x \in X$$, $$\lambda \in \mathbb{F}$$ $$(f+g)(x) = f(x) + g(x)$$ and $$(\lambda f)(x) = \lambda f(x)$$ and composition is associative..
 
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Okay so for linearity:

$$
((f + \lambda g) \circ h)(x) = f((h(x)) + \lambda g (h(x)))
= (f \circ h + \lambda g \circ h)(x)
$$

Multiplicativity:

$$
(f \circ g) ( g \circ h) (x) = f(g \circ h)(x)
= ((fg) \circ h) (x).
$$

To show the mapping preserves involution:

$$
(\overline{f} \circ h)(x) = \overline{f}(x)
= (\overline{f \circ h})(x)
$$Lastly I must show that it is unital i.e.

$$1 h = 1$$, somehow it seems really obvious, but how can h just be gone... $$h$$ was assumed to be a homeomorphism between to compact hausdorff spaces so its 1-1 and has continuous inverse...
 
First, I tried to show that ##f_n## converges uniformly on ##[0,2\pi]##, which is true since ##f_n \rightarrow 0## for ##n \rightarrow \infty## and ##\sigma_n=\mathrm{sup}\left| \frac{\sin\left(\frac{n^2}{n+\frac 15}x\right)}{n^{x^2-3x+3}} \right| \leq \frac{1}{|n^{x^2-3x+3}|} \leq \frac{1}{n^{\frac 34}}\rightarrow 0##. I can't use neither Leibnitz's test nor Abel's test. For Dirichlet's test I would need to show, that ##\sin\left(\frac{n^2}{n+\frac 15}x \right)## has partialy bounded sums...