MHB Complete Metric Spaces .... Conway, Analysis, Section 5.2 ....

Click For Summary
Conway's definition of completeness in metric spaces is questioned, specifically regarding the mention of discrete metric spaces. The discussion suggests that the definition should apply to arbitrary metric spaces, as every Cauchy sequence should converge in a complete space. Participants agree that the reference to discrete metric spaces appears to be a misprint likely resulting from editing errors. This clarification allows the original poster to continue their study with confidence. The consensus is that the definition should encompass all metric spaces rather than being limited to discrete ones.
Math Amateur
Gold Member
MHB
Messages
3,920
Reaction score
48
I am reading John B. Conway's book: Ä First Course in Analysis and am focused on Chapter 5: Metric and Euclidean Spaces ... and in particular I am focused on Section 5.2: Sequences and Completeness ...

I need some help/clarification with Conway's defintion of completeness of a metric space ...

Conway's definition of a Cauchy sequence and a complete metric space read as follows ... ... View attachment 7637In the above text from Conway we read the following:

"... ... The discrete metric space $$(X,d)$$ is said to be complete if every Cauchy sequence converges. ... ... My question is as follows:

Why is Conway restricting this definition to a discrete metric space ... indeed is this a misprint ... ?

Surely we can say that an arbitrary metric space $$(X,d)$$ is said to be complete if every Cauchy sequence converges. ... ... Hope someone can help ...

Peter

NOTE: at the beginning of Section 5.2 $$(X,d)$$ is declared to be a given (arbitrary) metric space ... as follows:View attachment 7638
 
Physics news on Phys.org
Definitely a misprint. In fact, it looks as though the word "discrete" somehow spread from Example 5.2.4(d) to Definition 5.2.3 at some point during the copy-editing stage.
 
Hi Peter,

Unless there is something else in the book that suggests otherwise, I think that this is indeed an error.

After all, textbook authors, like all of us, are not immune from blunders;).
 
castor28 said:
Hi Peter,

Unless there is something else in the book that suggests otherwise, I think that this is indeed an error.

After all, textbook authors, like all of us, are not immune from blunders;).
Thanks Opalg and castor28 ...

... now have the confidence to move on with reading the text ...

Peter
 
castor28 said:
Hi Peter,

Unless there is something else in the book that suggests otherwise, I think that this is indeed an error.

After all, textbook authors, like all of us, are not immune from blunders;).
I om!
 
We all know the definition of n-dimensional topological manifold uses open sets and homeomorphisms onto the image as open set in ##\mathbb R^n##. It should be possible to reformulate the definition of n-dimensional topological manifold using closed sets on the manifold's topology and on ##\mathbb R^n## ? I'm positive for this. Perhaps the definition of smooth manifold would be problematic, though.

Similar threads

  • · Replies 17 ·
Replies
17
Views
1K
  • · Replies 5 ·
Replies
5
Views
2K
  • · Replies 7 ·
Replies
7
Views
2K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
2K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
2K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
2K
  • · Replies 15 ·
Replies
15
Views
2K
Replies
6
Views
2K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
2K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
2K