Show that f(z) = x^2 + i(y^2) is diff at all points on y=x. Then show that is not analytic anywhere.
Cauchy Riemann equations: fy = ifx <=> function is differentiable (I'm still unclear about the implications of CR-equations. It says in my book that if f is differentiable at z, fx and fy exist and satisfy the CR-equations, but it also says that a polynomial is analytic <=> CR-equations are satisfied).
The Attempt at a Solution
So I took the partial derivatives:
fy = 2iy
ifx = 2ix
The only way for fy (2iy) = ifx (2ix) is if x=y. This shows that the equation is differentiable because it satisfies CR-equations.
But I'm not sure how to show that this is not analytic. As I understand it, analyticity is a neighborhood property, so just because the function is differentiable at the points where y=x, there doesn't exist a neighborhood around each point where f is differentiable, and so f(z) is not analytic. But is this explanation sufficient to show that a f(z) is not analytic, or do I need to show more?
Also, I thought that satisfaction of CR-equations meant that the function was analytic...But the book says that it is not analytic, despite CR being satisfied on the line y=x.