MHB [Complex Analysis] Singularity in product of analytic functions

ludwig1
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Suppose f,g:ℂ→ℂ are analytic with singularities at z=0. I was wondering whether f(z)^2 or f(z)g(z) will have a singularity at z=0? For each, can you give me a proof or a counterexample?
 
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ludwig said:
Suppose f,g:ℂ→ℂ are analytic with singularities at z=0. I was wondering whether f(z)^2 or f(z)g(z) will have a singularity at z=0? For each, can you give me a proof or a counterexample?
I think the most staightforward (but perhaps not the most handy?) approach would be to just consider Laurent series for $f$ and $g$ on the same annulus centered at the origin. What do you know about the coefficients in the product of two such series?

Assuming that "singularity" means either "pole" or "essential singularity", you could start by considering the case that $f$ and $g$ have poles of (finite) orders $n$ and $m$ in $\mathbb{N}$, respectively. Next, you could look at the case that one or both of $f$ and $g$ have essential singularities (i.e. infinitely many non-zero terms occur in the principal parts of their Laurent series).
 
A sphere as topological manifold can be defined by gluing together the boundary of two disk. Basically one starts assigning each disk the subspace topology from ##\mathbb R^2## and then taking the quotient topology obtained by gluing their boundaries. Starting from the above definition of 2-sphere as topological manifold, shows that it is homeomorphic to the "embedded" sphere understood as subset of ##\mathbb R^3## in the subspace topology.

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