Complex conjugate of a derivative wrt z

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the relationship between the complex conjugate of a derivative of a complex function and the derivative of the complex conjugate of that function. Participants explore whether the equation \(\overline{\frac{∂f}{∂z}} =\frac{∂\overline{f}}{∂\overline{z}}\) holds true, examining specific cases and implications.

Discussion Character

  • Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • One participant proposes that the equation \(\overline{\frac{∂f}{∂z}} =\frac{∂\overline{f}}{∂\overline{z}}\) is true based on their proof.
  • Another participant challenges this assertion by providing a counterexample where \(f(z, \overline{z}) = \overline{z}\), leading to \(\frac{∂f}{∂z} = 0\).
  • A subsequent reply suggests that the original formula could still hold under specific conditions, referencing the relationship between \(f\) and its conjugate.
  • One participant acknowledges a misunderstanding of the original question and agrees with the validity of the formula in a corrected context.
  • A later post explicitly states that the initial claim is believed to be incorrect.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants express differing views on the validity of the proposed equation, with some supporting it under certain conditions and others outright rejecting it. The discussion remains unresolved with multiple competing perspectives.

Contextual Notes

Some claims depend on specific definitions of the functions involved, and the implications of the derivatives are not fully explored, leaving certain assumptions unaddressed.

stallm
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First post!

Is it true that for a complex function f({z},\overline{z})

\overline{\frac{∂f}{∂z}} =\frac{∂\overline{f}}{∂\overline{z}}

I think I proved this while trying to solve a problem. If it turns out it's not true and I've made a mistake, I'll upload my 'proof' and have the mistakes pointed out :)

Thanks
 
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welcome to pf!

hi stallm!welcome to pf! :smile:

but if f(z,z*) = z* then ∂f/∂z = 0 :confused:
 


tiny-tim said:
hi stallm!welcome to pf! :smile:

but if f(z,z*) = z* then ∂f/∂z = 0 :confused:

That would be alright, because f*=z, so ∂(f*)/∂(z*) =0, so the formula works for this function
 
ah, i misread it :redface:

in that case, yes …

it's f(x,y), you're swapping x and y, differentiating wrt x instead of y, and swapping back again (for ∂f/∂z = (∂f*/∂z*)*) :smile:
 
Thank you!
 
stallm said:
First post!

Is it true that for a complex function f({z},\overline{z})

\overline{\frac{∂f}{∂z}} =\frac{∂\overline{f}}{∂\overline{z}}

I think I proved this while trying to solve a problem. If it turns out it's not true and I've made a mistake, I'll upload my 'proof' and have the mistakes pointed out :)

Thanks

I do not think this is correct.
 

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