MHB Complex Derivative .... Remark in Apostol, Section 16.1 .... ....

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I am reading Tom M Apostol's book "Mathematical Analysis" (Second Edition) ...

I am focused on Chapter 16: Cauchy's Theorem and the Residue Calculus ...

I need help in order to fully understand a remark of Apostol in Section 16.1 ...

The particular remark reads as follows:

View attachment 9279Could someone please demonstrate (in some detail) how it is the case that the complex function $$f$$ has a derivative at $$0$$ but at no other point of $$\mathbb{C}$$ ... ...Help will be much appreciated ...

Peter
 

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Hi Peter,

With $z=x+iy$, you have $f(z)=u + iv$, with $u=x^2+y^2$ and $v=0$.

What do the Cauchy-Riemann equations tell you ?
 
castor28 said:
Hi Peter,

With $z=x+iy$, you have $f(z)=u + iv$, with $u=x^2+y^2$ and $v=0$.

What do the Cauchy-Riemann equations tell you ?
Oh! Indeed ... Cauchy-Riemann equations are only satisfied at (0,0) ... therefore the only possible point where the derivative of f can exist is (0,0) ... and, given that the functions u and v ere continuous and have continuous first-order partial derivatives then f has a derivative at (0,0) ...

Thanks fir the help ... it is much appreciated ...

Peter
 
I posted this question on math-stackexchange but apparently I asked something stupid and I was downvoted. I still don't have an answer to my question so I hope someone in here can help me or at least explain me why I am asking something stupid. I started studying Complex Analysis and came upon the following theorem which is a direct consequence of the Cauchy-Goursat theorem: Let ##f:D\to\mathbb{C}## be an anlytic function over a simply connected region ##D##. If ##a## and ##z## are part of...