Undergrad Confused by proof in Hocking and Young

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The discussion revolves around a confusion regarding a proof in Hocking and Young related to closed sets in a compact Hausdorff space. The key point is understanding why two closed sets, A and B, remain closed in the larger space S when they are closed in the intersection H. The explanation emphasizes that the boundaries of A and H are contained within each other, ensuring A is closed in S. Additionally, the conversation touches on the characteristics of compact connected metric spaces and their homeomorphisms to intervals and circles. Overall, the thread highlights the importance of grasping foundational concepts in topology for clarity in proofs.
yossell
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Am trying to learn topology (again) and failing.

Lemma 2.8, p43 of Hocking and Young states: Let ##a## and ##b## be distinct points of a compact Hausdorff space ##S## and let ##\{H_\alpha \}## be a collection of closed sets simply ordered by inclusion. If each ##H_\alpha## is contains both ##a## and ##b## but is not the union of two separated sets,one containing ##a## and the other containing ##b##,then the intersection ##\cap_\alpha H_\alpha## also has this property.

Proof: Let ##H = \cap_\alpha H_\alpha## and suppose that ##H## is the union of two separated sets ##A## and ##B##, with ##a## in ##A## and ##b## in ##B##. Since H is closed and ##A## and ##B## are closed in ##H##, it follows that ##A## and ##B## are closed in the space ##S## and...'

It's that last 'it follows' that is losing me -- I can't see why it follows that they're closed in ##S##. I'm missing something trivial, but I don't know what. Any suggestions would be appreciated.

MENTOR note: replaced all $ with double # to render properly under mathjax
 
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This is trivial. There are two closed sets ## A ## and ## B ## and they will always be closed, no matter where they are placed, in ## H ## or in ## S ##. The only important thing is that the sets ## A ## and ## B ## are closed because of the Axiom C1.
 
Why are ##A,B## closed in ##H##?

If so, then they are closed in ##S,## too:

The boundary of ##A## in ##S## is contained in ##H## and the boundary of ##H## in ##S##. But ##H\subseteq S## is closed, so its boundary in ##S## is fully contained in ##H##. Therefore, the boundary of ##A## in ##S## is fully contained in ##H## and since ##A\subseteq H## is closed, fully contained in ##A.## This means that ##A## is closed in ##S.## For short: you cannot gain additional boundary points of ##A## from searching in ##S## since all those points are already in ##H## and its boundary in ##S,## and thus in ##A.##
 
I took a quick look at that book and wondered why you were interested in such a tedious approach to topology. Then I noticed some very nice theorems on pages 54-55 with simple characterizations of a circle and an interval. E.g. apparently any compact connected metric space which is disconnected by the removal of any point, except for two of them, is homeomorphic to a closed interval. And such a c.c. metric space that is disconnected by the removal of any two points, is apparently homeomorphic to a circle. nice.
 
By " Simply ordered by inclusion", you mean a total order , i.e., for ## O, O'## closed, either ## O \subset O' ## or ##O' \subset O##?
 
We all know the definition of n-dimensional topological manifold uses open sets and homeomorphisms onto the image as open set in ##\mathbb R^n##. It should be possible to reformulate the definition of n-dimensional topological manifold using closed sets on the manifold's topology and on ##\mathbb R^n## ? I'm positive for this. Perhaps the definition of smooth manifold would be problematic, though.

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