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I'm currently going through Peskin and Schroeder's Intro to QFT textbook, chapter 4.2 "Perturbation Expansion of Correlation Functions".
So we use the evolution of an operator in the Heisenberg picture from some time t0 to an arbitrary time t>t0 assuming we know how the field looks at t0. Then we only keep the dominant case with no interactions, so this field is then the standard field in the interaction picture with a diagonalizible Hamiltonian (in the book it is a real scalar field with phi-4 interaction).
I am now confused because my professor commented in lecture that in the Fourier expansion of the field at t0 the operators a and a† do not have to be the usual annihilation and creation operators of the free field, but they have to be in order to explicitly calculate the field in the interaction picture. Do we then assume that t0 is far away enough in the past where there is no interaction and can use the results for a free theory?
So we use the evolution of an operator in the Heisenberg picture from some time t0 to an arbitrary time t>t0 assuming we know how the field looks at t0. Then we only keep the dominant case with no interactions, so this field is then the standard field in the interaction picture with a diagonalizible Hamiltonian (in the book it is a real scalar field with phi-4 interaction).
I am now confused because my professor commented in lecture that in the Fourier expansion of the field at t0 the operators a and a† do not have to be the usual annihilation and creation operators of the free field, but they have to be in order to explicitly calculate the field in the interaction picture. Do we then assume that t0 is far away enough in the past where there is no interaction and can use the results for a free theory?