Connection of zeta to primes: less Euler than error or L-functions?

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the relationship between the Riemann Hypothesis (RH) and prime numbers, emphasizing that the RH implies improved error terms in the prime number theorem, specifically referencing von Koch/Schoenfeld's results. It is established that the non-trivial zeros of the Riemann zeta function, denoted as ρ, play a crucial role in explicit formulas for L-functions. The connection between the zeta function and prime distribution is fundamentally derived from Euler's product formula, with contour integration techniques enhancing the accuracy of estimates. The validity of the RH would lead to a reduction in the error term of the prime number theorem due to the absence of poles in the logarithmic derivative of the zeta function until the critical line of real part 1/2.

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Mathematicians, number theorists, and students interested in the connections between the Riemann Hypothesis, prime number theory, and analytic techniques in mathematics.

nomadreid
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The connection between the Riemann zeta function and primes is often stated as lying in Euler's product formula, but wouldn't it be more correct that it lies in the zeta function role in the error function for the prime number theorem, or perhaps the explicit formulas of L-functions?
Often I read that the Riemann Hypothesis (RH) is related to prime numbers because of the equivalence on Re(s)>1 of the zeta function and Eurler's product formula
Euler.PNG

, but is it more accurate that the relevance of the RH to primes (or vice-versa) is either that the RH implies formulas for the error terms of the prime number theorem, for example, the von Koch/Schoenfeld's

von Koch.PNG

(as given in https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Riemann_hypothesis#Distribution_of_prime_numbers)

or even more so that the ρ in some of the explicit formulas for L-functions ranges over the non-trivial zeros of the Riemann zeta function (as outlined in https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Explicit_formulae_for_L-functions#Riemann's_explicit_formula)?

Or do the latter two results simply hark back to the Euler result in some way?
 
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In general, all of relationships between the zeta function and distribution of primes come from the Euler product. Exactly how depends on which identity you want, but the general idea is that you take the logarithmic derivative of the Euler product and perform contour integration. The further you can push the region of integration to the left, the better estimates you get, which is why the Riemann hypothesis would imply a smaller error term in the prime number theorem (since if RH is true, then ##\zeta'/\zeta## doesn't have any poles until you reach the line of real part ##1/2##).
 
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Thank you, Infrared. Excellent explanation. :biggrin:
 

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