Consider the following probability mass function of a random variable x

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The discussion centers on the evaluation of the probability mass function defined as $p(x) = p^x(1-p)^{1-x}$ for $x=0.1$ and $0$ otherwise, where $0 \leq p \leq 1$. It is concluded that this does not constitute a valid probability mass function since the sum of $p(x)$ must equal 1, which is not satisfied in this case. The mean of the random variable $X$ is determined to be 0.1, and the variance is established as 0, given that there is only one value for $x$.

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dylbester
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$p(x) ={p}^{x}*{(1-p)}^{1-x}$
for $x=0.1$
$0$ otherwise

Where $p$ is such that $0<=p<=1$

Question:
Find the mean and variance of $X
 
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dylbester said:
$p(x) ={p}^{x}*{(1-p)}^{1-x}$
for $x=0.1$
$0$ otherwise

Where $p$ is such that $0<=p<=1$

Question:
Find the mean and variance of $X$

Hi dylbester! Welcome to MHB! (Smile)

That doesn't seem to be a proper probability mass function.
The sum of $p(x)$ for all values of $x$ is supposed to be $1$.
Since there is only one value for $x$, which is $0.1$, that should mean that $p(0.1)=1$, but that is not the case for any choice for $p$.

Anyway, if there is only one value for $x$, the mean will have to be that value.
And the deviation of that mean can only be $0$, so the variance will then have to be $0$.
 

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