Constant on [epsilon, 2epsilon] implies f'(0)=K

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the implications of a limit involving a continuous function at zero, specifically examining whether the condition \(\lim_{x \to 0}\frac{f(x)-g(x)}{g(x)}=M\) leads to \(f'(0)=M\). Participants are exploring this in the context of various forms of \(g(x)\), particularly \(g(x)=x/2\) and \(g(x)=kx\) where \(k\) is a natural number.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking, Conceptual clarification

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Some participants are attempting to relate the limit condition to the definition of differentiability, questioning if the continuity of \(f\) at zero is sufficient for \(f'(0)=M\). Others are examining specific cases of \(g(x)\) to see how they affect the outcome. There is also a discussion about the implications of different values of \(k\) and the potential for counterexamples.

Discussion Status

The discussion is active, with participants providing various insights and examples. Some have pointed out that the original condition does not necessarily imply \(f'(0)=M\), and there are ongoing attempts to clarify the relationship between the limit and differentiability. Multiple interpretations are being explored, particularly regarding the special case when \(k=2\).

Contextual Notes

Participants are considering the implications of continuity and differentiability, as well as the specific forms of \(g(x)\) being analyzed. There is an acknowledgment of the need for further exploration to either prove or disprove the relationship in question.

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Homework Statement


Warning: I realize the title is misleading... the function itself isn't what's constant.
Mod note: Edited to fix the LaTeX

If ##f## is a continuous at 0 such that ##\lim_{x \to 0}\frac{f(x)-f(g(x))}{g(x)}=M##, where ##g(x)\to 0## as ##x\to 0## does this generally mean that ##f'(0)=M##? I have been working on the case that ##g(x)=x/2##. It seems like this should be the case since you are saying the secant line on any ##[\epsilon, 2\epsilon]## is constant, so as ##\epsilon## tends to zero, the slope will approach the slope of the tangent line. I've been trying to fudge the definition of continuity to get this and show ##|f'(0)-h(0)|<\epsilon## where ##h(t) = \lim_{x\to t} \frac{f(x)-f(g(t))}{x-g(t)}##

Homework Equations


Definition of continuity - \epsilon-delta and limit
Definition of differentiability
Mean Value Theorem
Sequences of functions?
 
Last edited:
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RBG said:

Homework Statement


Warning: I realize the title is misleading... the function itself isn't what's constant.

If $f$ is a continuous at 0 such that $\underset{x\to 0}{\lim}\frac{f(x)-g(x)}{g(x)}=M$ does this generally mean that $f'(0)=M$? I have been working on the case that $g(x)=x/2$. It seems like this should be the case since you are saying the secant line on any $[\epsilon, 2\epsilon]$ is constant, so as \epsilon tends to zero, the slope will approach the slope of the tangent line. I've been trying to fudge the definition of continuity to get this and show $|f'(0)-h(0)|<\epsilon$ where $h(t) = \underset{x\to t}{\lim}\frac{f(x)-f(t)}{x-t}$

Homework Equations


Definition of continuity - \epsilon-delta and limit
Definition of differentiability
Mean Value Theorem
Sequences of functions?
Hello RBG. Welcome to PF !

Code:
Use $$ (Double dollar sign.) to set off LaTeX on an individual line.
Use ## to set off LaTeX  for in-line style.
As follows:

If ##f## is a continuous at 0 such that $$\underset{x\to 0}{\lim}\frac{f(x)-g(x)}{g(x)}=M\,,$$ does this generally mean that ##f'(0)=M##?
 
SammyS said:
Hello RBG. Welcome to PF !

Code:
Use $$ (Double dollar sign.) to set off LaTeX on an individual line.
Use ## to set off LaTeX  for in-line style.
As follows:

If ##f## is a continuous at 0 such that $$\underset{x\to 0}{\lim}\frac{f(x)-g(x)}{g(x)}=M\,,$$ does this generally mean that ##f'(0)=M##?
Thank you! Also, I edited my question to what I meant. I am really more just interested in the ##g(x)=\frac{x}{k}## where ##k\in\mathbb{N}## case.
 
$$\underset{x\to 0}{\lim}\frac{f(x)-x/k}{x/k}=M \ \Rightarrow \ \underset{x\to 0}{\lim}\frac{f(x)}{x} = \frac{M+1}{k}$$
 
RBG said:

Homework Statement


Warning: I realize the title is misleading... the function itself isn't what's constant.
Mod note: Edited to fix the LaTeX

If ##f## is a continuous at 0 such that ##\lim_{x \to 0}\frac{f(x)-g(x)}{g(x)}=M##, where ##g(x)\to 0## as ##x\to 0## does this generally mean that ##f'(0)=M##? I have been working on the case that ##g(x)=x/2##. It seems like this should be the case since you are saying the secant line on any ##[\epsilon, 2\epsilon]## is constant, so as ##\epsilon## tends to zero, the slope will approach the slope of the tangent line. I've been trying to fudge the definition of continuity to get this and show ##|f'(0)-h(0)|<\epsilon## where ##h(t) = \lim_{x\to t} \frac{f(x)-f(t)}{x-t}##

Homework Equations


Definition of continuity - \epsilon-delta and limit
Definition of differentiability
Mean Value Theorem
Sequences of functions?

Your condition does not imply ##f'(0) = M##. For example, take ##f(x) = (M+1) g(x) \, \forall \, x##, which certainly satisfies your limit condition. If you take ##g(x) = \sqrt{|x|}## you will see that ##f'(0)## need not even exist.

For the case of interest, namely, ##g(x) = kx## you can compute ##f'(0)## and see what you get.
 
PeroK said:
$$\underset{x\to 0}{\lim}\frac{f(x)-x/k}{x/k}=M \ \Rightarrow \ \underset{x\to 0}{\lim}\frac{f(x)}{x} = \frac{M+1}{k}$$

Woops! Man, for a first post I am messing up a lot. I meant what my edits say, that is ##f(g(x))## not just ##g(x)## in the numerator!
 
RBG said:
Woops! Man, for a first post I am messing up a lot. I meant what my edits say, that is ##f(g(x))## not just ##g(x)## in the numerator!
##f'(0) = \underset{x\to 0}{\lim}\frac{f(x/k)-f(0)}{x/k} \ne \underset{x\to 0}{\lim}\frac{f(x) - f(x/k)}{x/k}##

For example. Try ##f(x) = x##:

##\underset{x\to 0}{\lim}\frac{f(x) - f(x/k)}{x/k} = k - 1 \ne f'(0)## (unless ##k = 2##)
 
PeroK said:
##f'(0) = \underset{x\to 0}{\lim}\frac{f(x/k)-f(0)}{x/k} \ne \underset{x\to 0}{\lim}\frac{f(x) - f(x/k)}{x/k}##

For example. Try ##f(x) = x##:

##\underset{x\to 0}{\lim}\frac{f(x) - f(x/k)}{x/k} = k - 1 \ne f'(0)## (unless ##k = 2##)

So if we're in the ##k=2## case and the only thing I know about ##f## is that it's continuous at ##0##, how would I show that ##f'(0)=M##?
 
RBG said:
So if we're in the ##k=2## case and the only thing I know about ##f## is that it's continuous at ##0##, how would I show that ##f'(0)=M##?

See Samy_A's post below. ##k = 2## is a special case.
 
Last edited:
  • #10
Now I'm confused too.

Lets assume that ##f## is differentiable at ##x=0##, and ##M=\underset{x\to 0}{\lim}\frac{f(x) - f(x/2)}{x/2}##
##\frac{f(x)-f(0)}{x}=\frac{f(x)-f(x/2)+f(x/2)-f(0)}{x}=\frac{f(x)-f(x/2)}{x}+\frac{f(x/2)-f(0)}{x}=\frac{1}{2}\frac{f(x)-f(x/2)}{x/2}+\frac{1}{2}\frac{f(x/2)-f(0)}{x/2}##
Taking the limit for ##x \to 0##, we get ##f'(0)=\frac{1}{2}M+\frac{1}{2}f'(0)##, so ##f'(0)=M##.
 
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  • #11
PeroK said:
See Samy_A's post below. ##k = 2## is a special case.
But I assumed that ##f## is differentiable at ##x=0##. What he wants to prove is that if ##M=\underset{x\to 0}{\lim}\frac{f(x) - f(x/2)}{x/2}## and ##f## is continuous at ##x=0##, then ##f## is also differentiable in 0.

For now, I find neither a proof, nor a counterexample.
 
Last edited:

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