JG89
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My question is best stated by using an example:
Suppose f is a function defined only for rational x, and for rational x f(x) = 1.
Say we want to prove that f is continuous at x = 1. Then we want to show that for every positive epsilon there exists a delta > 0 such that [tex]|f(x) - f(1)| < \epsilon[/tex] if [tex]|x-1| < \delta[/tex].
My question is, every open interval about x = 1 contains irrational x values where f isn't defined. If we consider only rational x, [tex]f(x) - f(1)| = 0 < \epsilon[/tex] and so it seems to be continuous. But what about the irrational values?
I'd say that my function f actually is indeed continuous, because [tex]|f(x) - f(1)| < \epsilon[/tex] must hold for all x in the interval [tex](1-\delta, 1 + \delta)[/tex], where x is IN THE DOMAIN OF F. Since only rational values are in the domain of f, we consider only those x values.
Is this right?
Suppose f is a function defined only for rational x, and for rational x f(x) = 1.
Say we want to prove that f is continuous at x = 1. Then we want to show that for every positive epsilon there exists a delta > 0 such that [tex]|f(x) - f(1)| < \epsilon[/tex] if [tex]|x-1| < \delta[/tex].
My question is, every open interval about x = 1 contains irrational x values where f isn't defined. If we consider only rational x, [tex]f(x) - f(1)| = 0 < \epsilon[/tex] and so it seems to be continuous. But what about the irrational values?
I'd say that my function f actually is indeed continuous, because [tex]|f(x) - f(1)| < \epsilon[/tex] must hold for all x in the interval [tex](1-\delta, 1 + \delta)[/tex], where x is IN THE DOMAIN OF F. Since only rational values are in the domain of f, we consider only those x values.
Is this right?