MHB Contour integral (please check my solution)

aruwin
Messages
204
Reaction score
0
Hello. Can someone check my solution for this question? I am not sure what to do about the "from e^-pi*1/2 to e^pi*i/2" part. I ignored that part.
 

Attachments

  • IMG_6396.jpg
    IMG_6396.jpg
    31.2 KB · Views: 99
Physics news on Phys.org
That looks correct. You could simplify the answer by noticing that $\sin\pi = 0.$
 
Opalg said:
That looks correct. You could simplify the answer by noticing that $\sin\pi = 0.$

Thanks. But what does "from e^-pi*1/2 to e^pi*i/2" mean?
 
aruwin said:
Thanks. But what does "from e^-pi*1/2 to e^pi*i/2" mean?
It means that $C$ is the contour starting at the point $e^{-i\pi/2} = -i$ on the unit circle, and ending at the point $e^{i\pi/2} = i.$
 
Opalg said:
It means that $C$ is the contour starting at the point $e^{-i\pi/2} = -i$ on the unit circle, and ending at the point $e^{i\pi/2} = i.$

Does that affect the calculation here? Is that why we integrate from -pi/2 to pi/2?
 
We all know the definition of n-dimensional topological manifold uses open sets and homeomorphisms onto the image as open set in ##\mathbb R^n##. It should be possible to reformulate the definition of n-dimensional topological manifold using closed sets on the manifold's topology and on ##\mathbb R^n## ? I'm positive for this. Perhaps the definition of smooth manifold would be problematic, though.

Similar threads

  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
790
  • · Replies 14 ·
Replies
14
Views
3K
Replies
7
Views
4K
  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
2K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
3K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
2K
  • · Replies 27 ·
Replies
27
Views
8K
  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
2K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
1K
  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
3K