Convergence of Series with Cosine Terms

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SUMMARY

The series defined by the terms \(\sum_{n=0}^{\infty} \frac{\cos n}{1+n}\) does not converge absolutely. The limit comparison test is applicable, particularly with the series \(\sum_{n=0}^{\infty} \frac{1}{n}\), due to the bounded nature of \(\cos n\). Although \(|\cos n|\) does not converge to a limit as \(n\) approaches infinity, the series can still be shown to converge using the alternating series test. The distinction between \(\cos(n)\) and \(\cos(\pi n)\) is crucial in determining the convergence behavior.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of series convergence and divergence
  • Familiarity with the Limit Comparison Test
  • Knowledge of the Alternating Series Test
  • Basic properties of the cosine function and its boundedness
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the Limit Comparison Test in detail, including examples
  • Learn about the Alternating Series Test and its applications
  • Explore the Squeeze Theorem and its use in series analysis
  • Investigate the behavior of trigonometric functions in series
USEFUL FOR

Mathematicians, students studying calculus or real analysis, and anyone interested in series convergence, particularly those dealing with trigonometric terms.

de1irious
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How would I show that the series whose terms are given by
(cos n)/(1+n) does not converge absolutely? Thanks so much!
 
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\sum_{n=0}^{\infty} \frac{\cos n}{1+n}

So \sum_{n=0}^{\infty} \frac{\cos n}{1+n} \sim \frac{1}{n}
 
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Hi sorry, I'm having trouble understanding that. How am I supposed to compare that?
 
de1irious said:
How would I show that the series whose terms are given by
(cos n)/(1+n) does not converge absolutely? Thanks so much!

Is it cos(n) or cos(n*pi)? If it is the first then the limit comparison test should wor fairly well with the series 1/n.
 
de1irious said:
You mean this limit comparison test? http://mathworld.wolfram.com/LimitComparisonTest.html

But what limit does it tend to? I thought |cos n| didn't tend to a limit as n--> infinity.

Yea that test, cos(n) doesn't but it is bounded so I think if you use that fact and maybe the squeeze theorem you should be able to show that the series doesn't converge absolutely. It shouldn't be very hard to show that the series does converge as is using the alternating series test, but I'm not sure if it is cos(n) as opposed to cos(pi*n).
 
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