Convergence of \sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{1}{n!}: A Basic Comparison Test

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[tex]\sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{1}{n!}[/tex]

I understand what n! means, but I have no clue what to compare this to. It is obvious to me that the sum converges, but I'm not sure how to prove it. I assume I would compare it to a p-series but I need help. Thanks!
 
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micromass said:
Compare it to [itex]1/n^2[/itex]...

lol, I just realized how simple this is. my bad.
 
Sorry, one more.

[tex]\sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{2^n}{n^2}[/tex]

What would I compare this to?

I can clearly see that it diverges since numerator is waaaay bigger but I don't know how to prove it.
 
micromass said:
Calculate the limit of the terms and show that the limit isn't 0.

Sorry I didn't specify. I understand how to use the limit test. For this problem I am supposed to compare it to something. Thanks for putting up with my questions :).

edit: since 2^n is soo much bigger then n^2 can I compare it to 2^n?
 
Maybe the harmonic series??

It's a stupid exercise anyway if you're not allowed to do the limit test.