Convergence of Cesáros Mean: Proving the Limit of a Sequence

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around proving the limit of a sequence related to the convergence of Cesàro's mean. The original poster presents a sequence \{\alpha_{n}\} that converges to zero and a derived sequence \{\beta_{n}\} defined as the average of the first n terms of \{\alpha_{n}\}. The goal is to show that if \{\alpha_{n}\} converges to zero, then \{\beta_{n}\} also converges to zero.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the implications of the convergence of \{\alpha_{n}\} and how it affects \{\beta_{n}\}. There are attempts to clarify the relationship between epsilon and the terms of the sequences, particularly regarding the behavior of \{\alpha_{n}\} for small n and large n.

Discussion Status

The discussion is ongoing, with participants exploring different aspects of the problem. Some guidance has been offered regarding the need to consider the behavior of the sequences as n increases, and there is recognition of the complexity involved in the proof. Multiple interpretations of the convergence and its implications are being examined.

Contextual Notes

Participants note that the initial terms of \{\alpha_{n}\} may exceed epsilon, which complicates the argument for \{\beta_{n}\}. There is an emphasis on the need to argue that as n becomes large, the average \{\beta_{n}\} can still converge to zero despite the behavior of the initial terms.

Beowulf2007
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Convergens of Cesáros mean(Urgent).

Homework Statement



I need to show the following:

(1) Let number sequence be given called \{\alpha_{n}\}_{n=1}^{\infty} for which \alpha_{n} \rightarrow 0 where n \rightarrow \infty.

(2) Given a sequence \{\beta_{n}}\}_{n=1}^{\infty} which is defined as \beta_{n}= \frac{\alpha_{1} + \alpha_{2} + \cdots + \alpha_{n}}{n}

If (1) is true then \beta_{n} \rightarrow 0 for n \rightarrow 0 is likewise true.

The Attempt at a Solution



The definition of convergens says (according to my textbook)

\forall \epsilon > 0 \exists N \in \mathbb{N} \forall n \in \mathbb{N}: n \geq N \Rightarrow |a_{n} - a| < \epsilon

If I use that on part 1 of (1) then

|\alpha_{n} - 0| < \epsilon \forall n \in \mathbb{N} thus \alpha_{n} converges.

Regarding part (2).

I get the inequality |\beta_{n}| < \epsilon from the definition.

Am I missing something here?

Best Regards
Beowulf
 
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The tricky part is, \alpha_k can be > \epsilon for k < N. (For example, \alpha_1 can be = 1,000,000\epsilon.) You need to argue "I can make n arbitrarily large, thus..."
 
EnumaElish said:
The tricky part is, \alpha_k can be > \epsilon for k < N. (For example, \alpha_1 can be = 1,000,000\epsilon.) You need to argue "I can make n arbitrarily large, thus..."

Hi an Thank You for Your reply.

I can see if I make n large then epsilon will have to be very small. Is the point that epsilon can only be larger than \alpha_n if n becomes extremely small?

Sincerely Yours
BeoWulf
 
Beowulf2007 said:
I can see if I make n large then epsilon will have to be very small.
You are starting with a given epsilon. The first k alphas may be larger than epsilon, so they'll make a large beta (if n were a constant). You have to see that, then argue: "this is not a problem, because I can make n arbitrarily large, which will make beta_n arbitrarily small."

Is the point that epsilon can only be larger than \alpha_n if n becomes extremely small?
\epsilon &gt; \alpha_n for n arbitrarily LARGE.
 
EnumaElish said:
You are starting with a given epsilon. The first k alphas may be larger than epsilon, so they'll make a large beta (if n were a constant). You have to see that, then argue: "this is not a problem, because I can make n arbitrarily large, which will make beta_n arbitrarily small."

\epsilon &gt; \alpha_n for n arbitrarily LARGE.

So the that for any epsilon, if n is arbitrary larger then Beta_n will stay small and will therefore tend to zero? And that is simply the proof?

BR

Beowulf
 
Intuition: We are really taking finite means and then letting them go off to infinity. Now, eventually a_n becomes very close to zero and will always stay that close for any n afterwards (this is just convergence). But as we go off into infinity these a_ns get so close to zero, and there are so many of them, that they 'pull most of the mean' towards them.

Anyways, this is a tricky problem. But I'll start you off. Let epsilon>0. Since a_n->0 find N1 that works with epsilon/2. Then for all n>N1

b_n-0=a_1/n+a_2/n+...+a_N1/n + a_(N1+1)/n +...+a_n/n. Now the first N1 sums of b_n go to zero as n->infinity. Hence there exists an N2 such that whenever n>N2 |a_1/n+a_2/n+...+a_N1/n-0|<epsilon/2.

You should be able to finish this off. Man, I should have latexed this.
 

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