Convergent sequences might not have max or min

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the properties of convergent sequences in the real numbers, specifically whether a convergent sequence must have both a minimum and a maximum. The original poster presents a counterexample using the sequence defined by \( a_n = \frac{1}{n} \), which converges to 0, and questions the existence of a minimum and maximum in the set of its terms.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants explore the implications of the counterexample, questioning the necessity of a minimum and maximum for convergent sequences. Some suggest that demonstrating \( \inf(S) = 0 \) is sufficient to show the absence of a minimum, while others consider the possibility of both a maximum and minimum failing to exist simultaneously.

Discussion Status

The discussion is active, with participants providing insights and raising further questions about the properties of the sequence. Some have offered guidance on how to rigorously show that the infimum is 0, while others are exploring the implications of the original question regarding the existence of both a maximum and minimum.

Contextual Notes

Participants are considering the implications of the Archimedean property and the boundedness of convergent sequences. There is an ongoing exploration of whether a single example can illustrate the failure of both a maximum and minimum to exist in a convergent sequence.

Mr Davis 97
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Homework Statement


Prove or produce a counterexample: If ##\{a_n\}_{n=1}^\infty\subset \mathbb{R}## is convergent, then
##
\min (\{a_n:n\in\mathbb{N}\} )## and
##\max (\{a_n:n\in\mathbb{N}\} )
##
both exist.

Homework Equations

The Attempt at a Solution


I will produce a counterexample.
Let ##a_n = \frac{1}{n}##. First we will show that ##a_n## is converges to 0.
Let ##\epsilon > 0##. By the Archimedian principle there exists an ##N \in \mathbb{N}## such that ##\frac{1}{N} < \epsilon##. If ##n \ge N##, then ##|a_n - 0| = |\frac{1}{n} - 0| = \frac{1}{n} \le \frac{1}{N} < \epsilon##. So ##\lim a_n = 0##.

Let ##S = \{\frac{1}{n}:n\in\mathbb{N}\}##. Then ##\max(S) = \sup(S) = 1##. However, the set does not have a minimum, and this is where I'm stuck. Do I need to show that ##\inf(S) = 0## and that ##0 \not \in S##? Clearly there is no minimum, but I am not sure how to show this rigorously.
 
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Yes, it is sufficient to show that inf(S) = 0 but inf(S) does not belong to S.
 
This works. Now, what simple thing can you do to provide an example for the other assertion?
 
Math_QED said:
This works. Now, what simple thing can you do to provide an example for the other assertion?

Since the question asked whether both a max and a min exist, he has disproved that by showing there need not be a min. A similar example could be given about the max.

However, a more interesting (and seemingly much harder) case is whether one can find a single example in which both a max and a min fail to exist. (In other words, must every convergent sequence have either a max or a min?)
 
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Math_QED said:
This works. Now, what simple thing can you do to provide an example for the other assertion?
I'm actually not sure how to show that ##\inf(S) = 0##. Does it go something like this?

1) 0 is a lower bound. Since clearly ##\forall n \in \mathbb{N}##, ##0 \le \frac{1}{n}##.
2) Let ##b## be a lower bound for ##S##. Then ##\forall n \in \mathbb{N}##, ##b \le \frac{1}{n}##... This is where I'm stuck. I don't see how to conclude ##b \le 0##.
 
Mr Davis 97 said:
I'm actually not sure how to show that ##\inf(S) = 0##. Does it go something like this?

1) 0 is a lower bound. Since clearly ##\forall n \in \mathbb{N}##, ##0 \le \frac{1}{n}##.
2) Let ##b## be a lower bound for ##S##. Then ##\forall n \in \mathbb{N}##, ##b \le \frac{1}{n}##... This is where I'm stuck. I don't see how to conclude ##b \le 0##.
One way of seeing is that since 0 is the limit, points must ultimately become indefinitely small. If {1/n} had a minimum >0 then...
 
Mr Davis 97 said:
I'm actually not sure how to show that ##\inf(S) = 0##. Does it go something like this?

1) 0 is a lower bound. Since clearly ##\forall n \in \mathbb{N}##, ##0 \le \frac{1}{n}##.
2) Let ##b## be a lower bound for ##S##. Then ##\forall n \in \mathbb{N}##, ##b \le \frac{1}{n}##... This is where I'm stuck. I don't see how to conclude ##b \le 0##.

There is more than one way:

(1) ##(1/n)_n## is a monotone decreasing bounded sequencce. Hence, it converges to its infinum by the monotone convergence theorem. But ##\lim_n 1/n = 0##. It follows that the infinum must be 0.

(2) Clearly, ##0 \leq 1/n## for all n. Hence, ##0## is an upper bound of the set. Use the archimedian property to show that ##0## is also the least upper bound.
 
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Ray Vickson said:
Since the question asked whether both a max and a min exist, he has disproved that by showing there need not be a min. A similar example could be given about the max.

However, a more interesting (and seemingly much harder) case is whether one can find a single example in which both a max and a min fail to exist. (In other words, must every convergent sequence have either a max or a min?)

My intuition tells me that your last statement is true.

Let me try to give a proof. Since our sequence ##(a_n)## is convergent, it is bounded. For the sake of reaching a contradiction, assume the sequence has neither a max nor a min. Put $$R:= \{a_n\mid n\}$$

Define ##m:= \inf R, M:= \sup R ##, which exist by boundedness of the sequence.

We can find subsequences converging to both ##m## and ##M## (this needs justification using that ##m,M \notin R##)

Because our sequence is convergent, it follows that ##m=M##. This means that R is a singelton, which means R contains its maximum and minimum.

Contradiction.
 

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