Saitama
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Mentallic said:Why did you get stuck? That's exactly what it should be!
So now we have
\int{f(x)dx}=\sum_{k=0}^{n}{^n}C_kx\cdot \left(x^2\right)^k
And since x is independent of k, it can move out the front of the summation, so we have
x\sum_{k=0}^{n}{^n}C_k\left(x^2\right)^k1^{n-k}
And now apply the formula to convert it into a binomial. And since you need to find f(1), take the derivative of both sides to get the expression for f(x).
If i convert it into binomial, i get
x.(x^2+1)^n
I substitute the value 1 and i get
2^n
But then how i would find out the derivative??
Do i have to first take the derivative and substitute the value 1?
