Coupled Angular Momentum sates and probability

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The discussion focuses on the joint probability of two p electrons in coupled angular momentum states, specifically |2,-2,11>. The participants analyze the implications of the total magnetic quantum number m1 + m2 = -2 and the validity of the state given the constraints of angular momentum. They explore the application of the L- operator and the Clebsch-Gordan theorem to derive the correct probabilities. A consensus emerges that certain terms in the expansion may not be valid due to the condition |m| ≤ l, leading to the conclusion that only specific terms contribute to the probability. The conversation highlights the complexities of angular momentum states and the need for careful application of quantum mechanics principles.
Ed Quanta
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Two p electrons are in the coupled angular momentum states |lml1l2>=|2,-2,11>. What is the joint probability of finding the two electrons with L1z and L2z?

Here is my thinking,

With m1 + m2 =-2, the expansion becomes

|2,-2,11>= C0-2|1,0>1|1,-2>2 + C-20|1,-2>1|1,0>2 + C-1-1|1,-1>1|1,-1>2

Now I believe I am supposed to apply the L- operator to both sides since L-|2,-2,11>=0 and since L-=L1- + L2- and we apply this to the othner side of the equatio.

However what we get does not look very pretty.

Am I on the right track? And what should I be doing to get the right answer?
 
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Remember |m| <= l, so we a state like l=1, m=-2 does not exist.. I think you should just have the last term in your expansion.. (someone correct me if I'm wrong, because it's been a while since I've done this.
 
Thanks, you are totally right. I remembered l>=m but forgot that -m where m>l cannot exist. Then wouldn't it just be a 100 perent possibility that -h is the angular moment for L1 and L2?
 
I didn't really undertstand much thing of your notation...It would be perfect,if were able to use the latex...
The theorem of Clebsch & Gordan states that
|j,m\rangle =\sum_{j_{1},j_{2},m_{1},m_{2}} \langle j_{1},m_{1},j_{2},m_{2}|j,m\rangle |j_{1},m_{1},j_{2},m_{2}\rangle

,where i hope you're familiar with the notation...

Daniel.
 
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Time reversal invariant Hamiltonians must satisfy ##[H,\Theta]=0## where ##\Theta## is time reversal operator. However, in some texts (for example see Many-body Quantum Theory in Condensed Matter Physics an introduction, HENRIK BRUUS and KARSTEN FLENSBERG, Corrected version: 14 January 2016, section 7.1.4) the time reversal invariant condition is introduced as ##H=H^*##. How these two conditions are identical?

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