Calculating Current in Parallel Circuits for Scientists

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To calculate current in parallel circuits, the current divider rule is essential, especially after determining the total current. The equation V=IR is useful, but for parallel resistors, the voltage across each resistor remains constant and equal to the source voltage. When dealing with three branches, the formula adjusts slightly to account for the additional resistances. The current through any resistor can be expressed as I_x = (R_T/R_x) * I_T, where R_T is the total resistance and I_T is the total current. Understanding these principles is crucial for accurately analyzing parallel circuits.
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This is just a general question... when trying to solve for the current in each resistor in a parallel circuit, how do you go about setting it up? (I know that the equation V=IR comes in handy...)
 
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You could use the current divider rule. That would require you to find the total current in the circuit. Whats wrong with using V=IR?
 
What is the current divider rule?
 
Its used to find current when resistances are hooked up in parallel with each other. Here is a wiki picture that should clear things up for you:
http://upload.wikimedia.org/wikipedia/en/4/47/Cdr.GIF
 
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That really helped! But if the circuit has three branches in parallel, does the formula change to I1=Itotal x ((R2+R3)/(R1+R2+R3)) ?
 
It changes a little when we have more than two resistances. Let's consider a circuit with three parallel branches. We know that the voltage drop across any resistor in a parallel circuit is equal to that of the source:

I_x = \frac{V_s}{R_x}

V_s = I_TR_T <--the source voltage is equal to the total current times the total resistance.

Now substituting I_TR_T for Vs in the first equation (Ix).

I_x = \frac{I_TR_T}{R_x}

We can therefore conclude that the current through any parallel resistor is in fact:
I_x = \frac{R_T}{R_x}\cdot I_T

Hope it helps/
 
The book claims the answer is that all the magnitudes are the same because "the gravitational force on the penguin is the same". I'm having trouble understanding this. I thought the buoyant force was equal to the weight of the fluid displaced. Weight depends on mass which depends on density. Therefore, due to the differing densities the buoyant force will be different in each case? Is this incorrect?

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