Deduce orthogonality relations for sine and cosine w/ Euler's Formula

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The discussion focuses on deducing orthogonality relations for sine and cosine using Euler's formula. Part (a) establishes that the integral of the product of exponentials is either \(2\pi\) when \(m=n\) or zero when \(m\neq n\). The challenge in part (b) is to apply the results from part (a) to derive similar relations for sine and cosine. The integration of the product of sine and cosine functions leads to zero, confirming their orthogonality. The conclusion emphasizes that converting sine and cosine to exponential form is more effective than the reverse approach.
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Homework Statement
The following is problem 7 of chapter 9.10 in Apostol's *Calculus*, Volume I.

(a) If ##m## and ##n## are integers prove that

$$\int_0^{2\pi} e^{inx}e^{-imx}dx=\begin{cases}0\ \ \ \ \ \text{if}\
m\neq n\\ 2\pi\ \ \ \ \text{if}\ m=n\end{cases}$$

(b) Use part (a) to deduce the orthogonality relations for the sine and
cosine (##m## and ##n## are integers, ##m^2\neq n^2##):

$$\int_0^{2\pi} \sin{nx}\cos{mx}dx=\int_0^{2\pi}
\sin{nx}\sin{mx}dx=\int_0^{2\pi} \cos{nx}\cos{mx}dx$$
Relevant Equations
$$\int_0^{2\pi} \sin^2{nx}dx=\int_0^{2\pi} \cos^2{nx}dx=\pi$$
To solve part (a), we write ##e^{inx}e^{-imx}=e^{ix(n-m)}##.

If ##m=n## then this expression is 1, and so the integral of 1 from 0 to ##2\pi## is ##2\pi##.

If ##m\neq n## then we use Euler's formula and integrate. The result is zero.

My question is how do we solve part (b) using part (a)?

I can solve part (b) by using the trigonometric identities for ##\sin{(a\pm b)}## and ##\cos{(a\pm b)}## with ##a=mx## and ##b=nx##.

But how do we solve (b) using part (a)?

What I tried to do was

$$e^{nxi}e^{-mxi}=(\cos{nx}+i\sin{mx})(\cos{mx}-i\sin{nx})\tag{1}$$

$$e^{nxi}e^{-mxi}=\cos{nx}\cos{mx}+\sin{nx}\sin{mx}+i(-\cos{nx}\sin{mx}+\sin{nx}\cos{mx})\tag{2}$$

If ##m\neq n## then when we integrate this expression the left-hand side is zero (by part (a)).

However, we are left with

$$0=\int_0^{2\pi} (\cos{nx}\cos{mx}+\sin{nx}\sin{mx}) dx + i\int_0^{2\pi} (-\cos{nx}\sin{mx}+\sin{nx}\cos{mx})dx$$

Thus

$$\int_0^{2\pi} (\cos{nx}\cos{mx}+\sin{nx}\sin{mx}) dx=0$$

$$\int_0^{2\pi} (-\cos{nx}\sin{mx}+\sin{nx}\cos{mx})dx=0$$
 
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Converting the exponentials to sin and cos is the wrong way to go. Instead, convert the sin and cos to exponentials.
 
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