Proving the Oddness of sin(mx)cos(nx) using Integration

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Homework Statement


Prove the following formula
[itex] \int_{-\pi}^{\pi} \sin(mx)\cos(nx)\,dx = 0\\<br /> (m, n = \pm 1, \pm 2, \pm 3, ...)[/itex]

Homework Equations


[itex] \sin(A)\cos(B) = \frac{1}{2}[\sin(A-B)+\sin(A+B)][/itex]

The Attempt at a Solution



[itex] \int_{-\pi}^{\pi} \sin(mx)\cos(nx)\,dx\\<br /> \int_{-\pi}^{\pi} \sin(mx-nx)+\sin(mx+nx)\,dx\\<br /> \int_{-\pi}^{\pi} \sin((m-n)x)+\sin((m+n)x)\,dx[/itex]
Edit
[itex] \int_{-\pi}^{\pi} \sin((m-n)x)\,dx + \int_{-\pi}^{\pi} \sin((m+n)x)\,dx[/itex]
the function, sine of any constant times x, is an odd function, therefore when it is integraded from -a to a, its value is 0.
Therefore, we get
[itex] \int_{-\pi}^{\pi} \sin((m-n)x)\,dx + \int_{-\pi}^{\pi} \sin((m+n)x)\,dx = 0 + 0 = 0[/itex]
Would that be sufficient in the proof?

Thanks guys!
 
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tainted said:

Homework Statement


Prove the following formula
[itex] \int_{-\pi}^{\pi} \sin(mx)\cos(nx)\,dx = 0\\<br /> (m, n = \pm 1, \pm 2, \pm 3, ...)[/itex]

Homework Equations


[itex] \sin(A)\cos(B) = \frac{1}{2}[\sin(A-B)+\sin(A+B)][/itex]

The Attempt at a Solution



[itex] \int_{-\pi}^{\pi} \sin(mx)\cos(nx)\,dx\\<br /> \int_{-\pi}^{\pi} \sin(mx-nx)+\sin(mx+nx)\,dx\\<br /> \int_{-\pi}^{\pi} \sin((m-n)x)+\sin((m+n)x)\,dx\\[/itex]

Now I would imagine that there is some identity to either evaluate these or to prove that these are odd.
!

What do you know about odd and even functions and integrals? Are sines and cosines odd or even? Can you draw any conclusions about those integrands?
 
Ok well of course -sin(x) = sin(-x) but does that hold true when there is a constant in front of x?
 
tainted said:
Ok well of course -sin(x) = sin(-x) but does that hold true when there is a constant in front of x?

x can be anything in that identity, can't it? Like, for example, cx.
 
Ok thanks guys! I think I got it, could you tell me if my attempted answer to the question appears to be sufficient?