Definite integral of exp and error function

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The discussion centers on evaluating the integral of the product of the exponential function and the error function, specifically from z to infinity. Participants note that while the integral over the entire real line has a neat analytical solution, the definite integral from z to infinity does not seem to yield an analytical result. One user suggests starting with the error function's representation to potentially simplify the integral. Another user shares a method for solving a related integral, which helps clarify the constant of integration in a more general formula. The conversation highlights the complexity of integrating over a limited range compared to the entire line.
petru
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Hi,

I've been trying to evaluate the following integral

\int_{z}^{\infty}\exp\left(-y^{2}\right)\mathrm{erf}\left(b\left(y-c\right)\right)\,\mathrm{d}y

or equivalently

\int_{z}^{\infty}\exp\left(-y^{2}\right)\mathrm{erfc}\left(b\left(y-c\right)\right)\,\mathrm{d}y

\mathrm{erf}\left(x\right)=\frac{2}{\sqrt{\pi}} \int_{0}^{x}\exp\left(-u^{2}\right)\,\mathrm{d}u, \quad\quad \mathrm{erfc}\left(x\right)=1-\mathrm{erf}\left(x\right)=\frac{2}{\sqrt{\pi}} \int_{x}^{+\infty}\exp\left(-u^{2}\right)\,\mathrm{d}u

I guess I tried to employ all techniques I'm familiar with but with no result.
Can anyone help me with this one, please?
Thank you!
 
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To the best of my knowledge, it can't be done analytically. I suggest you start with the erf representation and see if the two exponentials might be combined into one, so that you might have an erf for the integral.
 
Thanks mathman for your reply. I guess I'm not able to deal with this integral. I have a question though. I'm not a mathematician nor a math student so I was wondering if anyone could explain to me why the integral

\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}\exp\left(-y^{2}\right) \mathrm{erf}\left(b\left(y-c\right)\right)\,\mathrm{d}y=-\sqrt{\pi}\,\mathrm{erf}\left(\frac{bc}{\sqrt{1+b^{2}}}\right)

can be evaluated quite easily (using differentiation under integral sign method) and the integral from my original post seems to have no analytical solution?

Thanks!
 
I haven't looked at it in detail, but it looks like the problem is analogous to integrating the Gaussian. When you integrate over the entire real line you get a neat analytic solution, but integrating over part of the line ends up with erf.
 
Ok, I guess I know what you mean. Thanks again!
 
Hi !

in attachment, a method for solving the definite integral.
 

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Hi JJacquelin! Your post helped me with showing that the constant of integration C=0 in a more general formula:

<br /> \int_{-\infty}^{\infty}\exp\left(-b^{2}(x-c)^{2}\right)\mathrm{erf}\left(a\left(x-d\right)\right)\,\mathrm{d}x=\frac{\sqrt{\pi}}{b} \mathrm{erf}\left(\frac{ab\left(c-d\right)}{\sqrt{a{}^{2}+b{}^{2}}}\right),\quad b&gt;0<br />

Thank you!
 

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