Definition of Random Variable (from Durrett)

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SUMMARY

Durrett defines a random variable X as a function X: Ω → ℝ, where for every Borel set B ⊆ ℝ, the preimage X^(-1)(B) must belong to the sigma-algebra F on Ω. The discussion centers on a practical example involving a box of 100 balls, where X represents the sum of three drawn balls. The confusion arises when interpreting the definition with Borel sets, particularly when considering intervals, as X only maps to discrete values. However, the empty set, which results from X^(-1)(B) for certain B, is indeed contained in any sigma-algebra, confirming that X qualifies as a random variable.

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Hi everyone,

I'm confused about Durrett's formal definition of a random variable, as well his formal notions of probability spaces in general. I always try to make abstract definitions concrete through simple examples, but I can't wrap my head around this one:

Durrett defines:

X is a random variable if X: \Omega \rightarrow \Re and for every Borel set B \subset R, we have X^{-1}(B) \in F, where F is the sigma-algebra on \Omega.

Well, I tried to make this concrete with a simple example. Suppose we have a box with 100 balls labeled from 1 to 100. We draw 3 balls from this box without replacement. Let X be the sum of these three balls. We know that X is a random variable and it takes on values from 3 to 297.

To interpret this example in the context of Durrett's formal definition, I guess \Omega is the set of all subsets of size three from 1 to 100. So \Omega = \{\{1,2,3\} , \{1,2,4\}, ...\} The sigma-algebra F is all collections of these subsets. Then, our random variable X basically only maps the subsets of size 3 to the integers from 3 to 279. So far so good.

But the definition says for every Borel set B \subset R, which we can take as B = (0,1), a perfectly legit Borel set, and we would have X^{-1}(B) \in F. But the problem is the random variable X only maps to discrete points, not intervals. So based on this definition, X wouldn't be a random variable. But I know it is.

Any suggestions on where I may be interpreting things wrong here?
 
Last edited:
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X^(-1)(B) would in this case be the empty set, which is contained in any sigma-algebra.
 

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