pellman
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- 6
Claim: if \psi is a variable grassmann number, then \delta(\psi)=\psi is a Dirac delta function for integrals over \psi.
I'm not seeing this.
A general function of a grassmann number can be written f(\psi)=a+b\psi because anti-commutativity requires \psi^2=0. According to the wikipedia article (which doesn't elaborate on why), integrals satisfy
\int 1 d\psi=0
\int \psi d\psi=1
Ok. So let's check.
\int\delta(\psi-\psi')f(\psi)d\psi
=\int(\psi-\psi')f(\psi)d\psi
=\int(\psi-\psi')(a+b\psi)d\psi
=a\int \psi d\psi + 0 -a\psi'\int d\psi-b\psi'\int\psi d\psi
=a - 0 -b\psi'
=f(-\psi')
\neq f(\psi')
Are one of my assumptions wrong?
I'm not seeing this.
A general function of a grassmann number can be written f(\psi)=a+b\psi because anti-commutativity requires \psi^2=0. According to the wikipedia article (which doesn't elaborate on why), integrals satisfy
\int 1 d\psi=0
\int \psi d\psi=1
Ok. So let's check.
\int\delta(\psi-\psi')f(\psi)d\psi
=\int(\psi-\psi')f(\psi)d\psi
=\int(\psi-\psi')(a+b\psi)d\psi
=a\int \psi d\psi + 0 -a\psi'\int d\psi-b\psi'\int\psi d\psi
=a - 0 -b\psi'
=f(-\psi')
\neq f(\psi')
Are one of my assumptions wrong?