This is my first time posting here, I apologize if this is the wrong place to ask such a question. In my book I have the following London equation written (1st) for a superconductor:(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

E=μ_{0}λ^{2}_{L}∂J/∂t

where: λ^{2}_{L}is the london penetration depth.

My understanding is that it can be derived from newtons 2nd law, by simply assuming the electron is accelerated indefinitely, and writing in terms of current densities. My issue with this is that there is an ernous factor of 1/4 that turns up in the final answer which is sometimes included in λ^{2}_{L}that I cannot resolve. The wikipedia article here: (http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/London_penetration_depth) does not include the factor of 1/4 in λ^{2}_{L}.

I can't find anywhere to help with this inconsistency, I can only think that the mass is half of that in the drude model (after the scattering term is removed) or the charge is a factor of √2 greater.

**Physics Forums - The Fusion of Science and Community**

Dismiss Notice

Join Physics Forums Today!

The friendliest, high quality science and math community on the planet! Everyone who loves science is here!

The friendliest, high quality science and math community on the planet! Everyone who loves science is here!

# Derivation of 1st london equation.

Loading...

Similar Threads - Derivation london equation | Date |
---|---|

I Density of States -- alternative derivation | Feb 23, 2018 |

A Derivation in Ashcroft and Mermin (The Pseudopotential) | Jan 31, 2018 |

I 1D Phonon density of state derivation | Jun 8, 2017 |

I How can you derive the effective mass? | Nov 11, 2016 |

Deriving the London's equation for superconductor | Dec 16, 2012 |

**Physics Forums - The Fusion of Science and Community**