Derivative Notation: Is y'=\frac{dy}{dx} Correct?

Click For Summary

Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the notation of derivatives, specifically whether y' is equivalent to dy/dx when y is a function of x. The context includes algebraic manipulations involving these notations in the setting of differential equations.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants explore the relationship between different derivative notations and question the validity of simplifications made during manipulations involving dy and dx.

Discussion Status

Some participants provide confirmations regarding the equivalence of the notations, while others express uncertainty about specific simplifications in the context of solving differential equations. The discussion appears to be productive, with participants engaging in clarifying their understanding of the concepts involved.

Contextual Notes

There is mention of a specific equation that is scale invariant and the need to manipulate derivatives correctly to solve it. The original poster reflects on the implications of treating v as a constant versus a function of x in their manipulations.

PhysicsMark
Messages
90
Reaction score
0

Homework Statement


Is it correct to say that if "y" is a function of x, then

[tex]y'=\frac{dy}{dx}[/tex]

??
 
Physics news on Phys.org
Yes (assuming x is your only variable).
 
Those are two different ways of writing one thing.

The y' notation is sometimes called Newton notation (although he used a dot instead of a prime), and the other is called Leibniz notation.
 
I think I may have answered my own question with this next one, but I would like to get a confirmation.

I asked the question above because in my math methods in physics class, the tutorials we use and the professor often algebraically manipulate the dy's and dx's in equations involving y'.

I am reviewing scale invariance and its applications to FODE's.

After proving the following equation is scale invariant, I am to solve for the general solution.

[tex]y'+\frac{y^{2}}{x^{2}}=2[/tex]

After I have shown it is scale invariant, I use the substitution y=vx to obtain:

[tex]v+x\frac{dv}{dx}+v^2=2[/tex]

In order to get to the point above, I note that:

[tex]dy=vdx+xdv[/tex]

Here is where my question comes in. I originally looked at this problem by stating:

[tex]y'=\frac{dy}{dx}=\frac{d(vx)}{dx}=\frac{dvdx}{dx}=dv[/tex]

This is the wrong simplification

As far as I know, v is a number not a function of x. I believe I understand that this method is used to make an inhomogeneous equation separable. How do I avoid making the wrong simplification?

I think the answer is that I need to recognize that I must have a "dv" and a "dx" in order to solve the equation in a separable manner, otherwise I would have had:

[tex]dv+v^2=2[/tex]

Does that make any sense at all? Thanks for replying.
 
Haha...nevermind. It is the same thing, just not carried out all the way through.

dy/dx=dv...dy=dv(dx)= vdx+xdv.
 

Similar threads

  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
1K
Replies
4
Views
3K
  • · Replies 8 ·
Replies
8
Views
2K
  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
2K
Replies
19
Views
3K
Replies
6
Views
2K
  • · Replies 5 ·
Replies
5
Views
2K
  • · Replies 5 ·
Replies
5
Views
1K
Replies
3
Views
2K
Replies
3
Views
2K