Derivative of cosh x: Clarifying Confusion

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SUMMARY

The discussion clarifies the derivative of the hyperbolic cosine function, cosh(x), and addresses confusion regarding the summation index in power series. It establishes that the derivative can be expressed as f'(x) = ∑(k=1)∞ ka_kx^(k-1) or f'(x) = ∑(k=0)∞ ka_kx^(k-1), with the k=0 term contributing zero. The transition from the third to the fourth line in the derivation is explained through a change of index, resulting in the sum ∑(k=0)∞ (x^(2k+1))/(2k+1)!. The discussion emphasizes that defining cosh(x) as (e^x + e^(-x))/2 is a more straightforward approach.

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  • Understanding of power series and their derivatives
  • Familiarity with hyperbolic functions, specifically cosh(x) and sinh(x)
  • Knowledge of index manipulation in summations
  • Basic calculus concepts, including differentiation
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Michael_Light
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maths.png


Hi... I read this from my lecture note, but i couldn't understand:

i) the red part, shouldn't it be k =0 instead of k=1?

ii) the third line to the fourth line... i.e.

maths 2.png


I have no idea how to change from the third line to the fourth line..

Can anyone enlighten me? Thanks a lot.. :smile:
 
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It doesn't matter. Since the terms being summed have a factor of "k", the k= 0 term has value 0.

In general, for power series, f(x)= \sum_{k=0}^\infty a_kx^k, the derivative can be written as either f'(x)= \sum_{k=0}^\infty ka_kx^{k- 1} or as f'(x)= \sum_{k=1}^\infty ka_kx^{k- 1} because the k= 0 term is 0.

By making the change of index, n= k- 1, so that k= n+1, the second can be written f'(x)= \sum_{n=0} (n+1)a_{n+1}x^n.
 
The first sum can be rewritten as
\displaystyle \sum_{k=1}^\infty (2k)\frac{x^{2k-1}}{(2k)!}=\sum_{k=1}^\infty \frac{x^{2k-1}}{(2k-1)!}​
since (2k)!=(2k)(2k-1)!. To change the base index, replace k by k+1. You then get the sum
\displaystyle \sum_{k=0}^\infty \frac{x^{2k+1}}{(2k+1)!}.​
 
Michael_Light said:
View attachment 54593

Hi... I read this from my lecture note, but i couldn't understand:

i) the red part, shouldn't it be k =0 instead of k=1?

ii) the third line to the fourth line... i.e.

View attachment 54595

I have no idea how to change from the third line to the fourth line..

Can anyone enlighten me? Thanks a lot.. :smile:

This seems to be a very roundabout way of getting this result.

cosh(x) = (ex + e-x)/2
The derivative = (ex - e-x)/2 =sinh(x).
 
IF cosh(x) has been defined as (e^x+ e^{-x})/2, yes, that is more direct. However, if cosh(x) has been defined as \sum_{i=0}^\infty x^{2i}/(2i)!, as is quite possible and apparently as done in the first post, the argument given is more direct.
 
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