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I thought of something today coming home from school: If I have two arbitrary real functions f(x) and g(x) and I know that

[tex]

\frac{df(x)}{x} = \frac{dg(x)}{dx}

[/tex]

Does this imply that f(x)=g(x)?

Best,

Niles.

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# Derivatives of functions and equality of those functions

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