- #1
Niles
- 1,866
- 0
Hi
I thought of something today coming home from school: If I have two arbitrary real functions f(x) and g(x) and I know that
[tex]
\frac{df(x)}{x} = \frac{dg(x)}{dx}
[/tex]
Does this imply that f(x)=g(x)?
Niles.
I thought of something today coming home from school: If I have two arbitrary real functions f(x) and g(x) and I know that
[tex]
\frac{df(x)}{x} = \frac{dg(x)}{dx}
[/tex]
Does this imply that f(x)=g(x)?
Niles.