Niles
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Hi
I thought of something today coming home from school: If I have two arbitrary real functions f(x) and g(x) and I know that
[tex] \frac{df(x)}{x} = \frac{dg(x)}{dx}[/tex]
Does this imply that f(x)=g(x)?
Niles.
I thought of something today coming home from school: If I have two arbitrary real functions f(x) and g(x) and I know that
[tex] \frac{df(x)}{x} = \frac{dg(x)}{dx}[/tex]
Does this imply that f(x)=g(x)?
Niles.