I Determine Scaling Dimension of Field Theory

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The discussion centers on determining the scaling dimension D of a field theory under length scaling transformations. It is established that for the action of a massless scalar field to remain invariant, D must equal 1, which prohibits the inclusion of a mass term since it breaks scale invariance. The interaction term must also maintain invariance, leading to the conclusion that the only viable interaction is a quartic term (φ^4), ensuring that the coupling constant is dimensionless. The conversation also touches on the implications of Noether's theorem and the renormalization of the massless field theory, raising questions about the behavior of scale invariance post-quantization. Ultimately, the findings suggest that the only allowed theory is a massless field with a φ^4 interaction.
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It is given that a theory is invariant under the length scaling:\begin{align*}
x &\rightarrow \lambda x \\
\phi(x) &\rightarrow \lambda^{-D} \phi(\lambda^{-1} x)
\end{align*}for some ##D## to be determined. The action of a real scalar field is here:\begin{align*}
S = \int d^4 x \dfrac{1}{2}\partial_{\mu} \phi \partial^{\mu} \phi - \dfrac{1}{2}m^2 \phi^2 -g\phi^p
\end{align*}Since ##\partial_{\mu} = \frac{\partial x'^{\nu}}{\partial x^{\mu}} \partial'_{\nu} = {(\Lambda^{-1})^{\nu}}_{\mu} \partial'_{\nu}## then would I be correct in thinking that the derivative of the field transforms as:\begin{align*}
\partial_{\mu} \phi(x) \rightarrow \partial_{\mu} \phi'(x) &= \lambda^{-D} \partial_{\mu} \phi(\lambda^{-1} x) \\
&= \lambda^{-D} {(\Lambda^{-1})^{\nu}}_{\mu} \partial'_{\nu} \phi(x')
\end{align*}so the derivative term in the action transforms as \begin{align*}
(\partial_{\mu} \phi)^2 &\rightarrow \lambda^{-2D} {(\Lambda^{-1})^{\nu}}_{\mu} {\Lambda^{\mu}}_{\rho} (\partial'_{\nu} \phi(x'))( \partial'^{\rho} \phi(x')) \\
&= \lambda^{-2D} (\partial'_{\mu} \phi(x'))^2
\end{align*}Meanwhile ##d^4 x = \lambda^{-4} d^4 x'##, and this would imply scale invariance when ##D=-2##? That feels wrong and I worry that I have transformed the wrong things.
 
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It's much simpler. For the scale transformation to be a symmetry, it's sufficient that the action is invariant. Now start with the massless free field,
$$S_0=\int \mathrm{d}^4 x \frac{1}{2} (\partial_{\mu} \phi) (\partial^{\mu} \phi).$$
Since ##\mathrm{d}^4 x \rightarrow \lambda^4 \mathrm{d}^4 x## and ##\partial_{\mu} \rightarrow \frac{1}{\lambda} \partial_{\mu}##, you must have ##D=1## to get ##S_0## invariant.

Then you see that the mass term is "forbidden" by the symmetry, because ##\mathrm{d}^4 x m^2 \phi^2## is not invariant. This is no surprise, because ##m## is a dimensionful parameter, which breaks scale invariance to begin with.

For the interaction term ##\mathrm{d}^4 x \phi^p## must be invariant, and thus ##p=4##. Indeed, only for ##p=4## the coupling constant ##g## is dimensionless too.

So the only allowed theory of this kind is a massless field ##\phi## with a ##\phi^4## interaction.

Some further ideas to think about:

(a) What's the Noether current of the scale symmetry?

(b) If you quantize it, you have to renormalize this massless (!) field theory, and then what happens with scale invariance?
 
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I was thinking about the two questions earlier, I wonder if you can guide me a little since this is new material. What I understand is that if the Lagrangian varies by a total derivative ##\delta \mathcal{L} = \partial_{\mu} F^{\mu}## under a variation ##\delta \phi_a(x) = X_a (\phi)## of the fields, then one obtains a Noether current ##j^{\mu} = \frac{\partial \mathcal{L}}{\partial \phi_{a,\mu}} X_a(\phi) - F^{\mu}(\phi)## satisfying ##\nabla \cdot j = 0##.

For this problem, is it correct to proceed as follows? I will put ##\lambda = 1+ \epsilon## where ##\epsilon## is a small positive or negative number, then write\begin{align*}
\tilde{\phi}(x) = \lambda^{-1} \phi(\lambda^{-1}x) &= (1 - \epsilon + O(\epsilon^2))\phi((1- \epsilon) x + O(\epsilon^2 x^2)) \\
&= (1 - \epsilon + O(\epsilon^2)) (\phi(x) - \epsilon x^{\nu} \phi_{,\nu}(x) + O(\epsilon^2 x^2) ) \\
&= \phi(x) - \epsilon \phi(x) - \epsilon x^{\nu} \phi_{,\nu}(x)
\end{align*}Then ##\delta \phi = - \epsilon (\phi + x^{\nu} \phi_{,\nu})##. For ##\phi_{,\mu}## I write\begin{align*}
\delta \phi_{,\mu} &= -\epsilon \partial_{\mu}(\phi + x^{\nu} \phi_{,\nu}) \\
&= - \epsilon \phi_{,\mu} - \epsilon \partial_{\mu}(x^{\nu} \phi_{,\nu}) \\
&= - \epsilon \phi_{,\mu} - \epsilon \phi_{,\mu} - x^{\nu} \phi_{,\nu \mu} \\
&= -\epsilon(2\phi_{,\mu} + x^{\nu} \phi_{,\nu \mu})
\end{align*}I write for the Lagrangian,\begin{align*}
\mathcal{L} = \dfrac{1}{2} \phi_{,\mu} \phi^{,\mu} -g \phi^4
\end{align*}from which follows ##\frac{\partial \mathcal{L}}{\partial \phi_{,\mu}} = \phi^{,\mu}## and ##\frac{\partial \mathcal{L}}{\partial \phi} = -4g\phi^3##, so that\begin{align*}
\delta \mathcal{L} &= -\epsilon \phi^{,\mu}(2\phi_{,\mu} + x^{\nu} \phi_{,\nu \mu}) + 4 g \epsilon \phi^3 (\phi + x^{\nu} \phi_{,\nu}) \\
&= -4\epsilon( \frac{1}{2} \phi^{,\mu} \phi^{,\mu} - g \phi^4) - 4\epsilon x^{\nu} (\frac{1}{4}\phi^{,\mu} \phi_{,\nu \mu} - g \phi^3 \phi_{,\nu}) \\
&= -4 \epsilon \left[ \mathcal{L} + x^{\nu} (\frac{1}{4}\phi^{,\mu} \phi_{,\nu \mu} - g \phi^3 \phi_{,\nu}) \right] \\
&= -4 \epsilon \left[ \mathcal{L} + x^{\nu} \dfrac{\partial}{\partial x^{\nu}} (\frac{1}{2}\phi^{,\mu} \phi_{,\mu} - \dfrac{1}{4}g \phi^4) \right] \\
\end{align*}which is almost ##- 4\epsilon \partial_{\nu}(x^{\nu} \mathcal{L})## but fails because of the factor of ##1/4## in front of the ##g\phi^4## term...
 
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Looks good (though I haven't checked the calculation in dateail). But now you also have to take into account that you have to express ##\mathrm{d}^4 x'## through ##\mathrm{d}^4 x## in the action integral, i.e., there's an additional contribution from the corresponding Jacobian, which you also get by expanding to first order in ##\epsilon##.
 
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Moderator's note: Spin-off from another thread due to topic change. In the second link referenced, there is a claim about a physical interpretation of frame field. Consider a family of observers whose worldlines fill a region of spacetime. Each of them carries a clock and a set of mutually orthogonal rulers. Each observer points in the (timelike) direction defined by its worldline's tangent at any given event along it. What about the rulers each of them carries ? My interpretation: each...

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