Undergrad Determine Scaling Dimension of Field Theory

Click For Summary
The discussion centers on determining the scaling dimension D of a field theory under length scaling transformations. It is established that for the action of a massless scalar field to remain invariant, D must equal 1, which prohibits the inclusion of a mass term since it breaks scale invariance. The interaction term must also maintain invariance, leading to the conclusion that the only viable interaction is a quartic term (φ^4), ensuring that the coupling constant is dimensionless. The conversation also touches on the implications of Noether's theorem and the renormalization of the massless field theory, raising questions about the behavior of scale invariance post-quantization. Ultimately, the findings suggest that the only allowed theory is a massless field with a φ^4 interaction.
ergospherical
Science Advisor
Homework Helper
Education Advisor
Insights Author
Messages
1,100
Reaction score
1,387
It is given that a theory is invariant under the length scaling:\begin{align*}
x &\rightarrow \lambda x \\
\phi(x) &\rightarrow \lambda^{-D} \phi(\lambda^{-1} x)
\end{align*}for some ##D## to be determined. The action of a real scalar field is here:\begin{align*}
S = \int d^4 x \dfrac{1}{2}\partial_{\mu} \phi \partial^{\mu} \phi - \dfrac{1}{2}m^2 \phi^2 -g\phi^p
\end{align*}Since ##\partial_{\mu} = \frac{\partial x'^{\nu}}{\partial x^{\mu}} \partial'_{\nu} = {(\Lambda^{-1})^{\nu}}_{\mu} \partial'_{\nu}## then would I be correct in thinking that the derivative of the field transforms as:\begin{align*}
\partial_{\mu} \phi(x) \rightarrow \partial_{\mu} \phi'(x) &= \lambda^{-D} \partial_{\mu} \phi(\lambda^{-1} x) \\
&= \lambda^{-D} {(\Lambda^{-1})^{\nu}}_{\mu} \partial'_{\nu} \phi(x')
\end{align*}so the derivative term in the action transforms as \begin{align*}
(\partial_{\mu} \phi)^2 &\rightarrow \lambda^{-2D} {(\Lambda^{-1})^{\nu}}_{\mu} {\Lambda^{\mu}}_{\rho} (\partial'_{\nu} \phi(x'))( \partial'^{\rho} \phi(x')) \\
&= \lambda^{-2D} (\partial'_{\mu} \phi(x'))^2
\end{align*}Meanwhile ##d^4 x = \lambda^{-4} d^4 x'##, and this would imply scale invariance when ##D=-2##? That feels wrong and I worry that I have transformed the wrong things.
 
Physics news on Phys.org
It's much simpler. For the scale transformation to be a symmetry, it's sufficient that the action is invariant. Now start with the massless free field,
$$S_0=\int \mathrm{d}^4 x \frac{1}{2} (\partial_{\mu} \phi) (\partial^{\mu} \phi).$$
Since ##\mathrm{d}^4 x \rightarrow \lambda^4 \mathrm{d}^4 x## and ##\partial_{\mu} \rightarrow \frac{1}{\lambda} \partial_{\mu}##, you must have ##D=1## to get ##S_0## invariant.

Then you see that the mass term is "forbidden" by the symmetry, because ##\mathrm{d}^4 x m^2 \phi^2## is not invariant. This is no surprise, because ##m## is a dimensionful parameter, which breaks scale invariance to begin with.

For the interaction term ##\mathrm{d}^4 x \phi^p## must be invariant, and thus ##p=4##. Indeed, only for ##p=4## the coupling constant ##g## is dimensionless too.

So the only allowed theory of this kind is a massless field ##\phi## with a ##\phi^4## interaction.

Some further ideas to think about:

(a) What's the Noether current of the scale symmetry?

(b) If you quantize it, you have to renormalize this massless (!) field theory, and then what happens with scale invariance?
 
  • Love
Likes ergospherical
I was thinking about the two questions earlier, I wonder if you can guide me a little since this is new material. What I understand is that if the Lagrangian varies by a total derivative ##\delta \mathcal{L} = \partial_{\mu} F^{\mu}## under a variation ##\delta \phi_a(x) = X_a (\phi)## of the fields, then one obtains a Noether current ##j^{\mu} = \frac{\partial \mathcal{L}}{\partial \phi_{a,\mu}} X_a(\phi) - F^{\mu}(\phi)## satisfying ##\nabla \cdot j = 0##.

For this problem, is it correct to proceed as follows? I will put ##\lambda = 1+ \epsilon## where ##\epsilon## is a small positive or negative number, then write\begin{align*}
\tilde{\phi}(x) = \lambda^{-1} \phi(\lambda^{-1}x) &= (1 - \epsilon + O(\epsilon^2))\phi((1- \epsilon) x + O(\epsilon^2 x^2)) \\
&= (1 - \epsilon + O(\epsilon^2)) (\phi(x) - \epsilon x^{\nu} \phi_{,\nu}(x) + O(\epsilon^2 x^2) ) \\
&= \phi(x) - \epsilon \phi(x) - \epsilon x^{\nu} \phi_{,\nu}(x)
\end{align*}Then ##\delta \phi = - \epsilon (\phi + x^{\nu} \phi_{,\nu})##. For ##\phi_{,\mu}## I write\begin{align*}
\delta \phi_{,\mu} &= -\epsilon \partial_{\mu}(\phi + x^{\nu} \phi_{,\nu}) \\
&= - \epsilon \phi_{,\mu} - \epsilon \partial_{\mu}(x^{\nu} \phi_{,\nu}) \\
&= - \epsilon \phi_{,\mu} - \epsilon \phi_{,\mu} - x^{\nu} \phi_{,\nu \mu} \\
&= -\epsilon(2\phi_{,\mu} + x^{\nu} \phi_{,\nu \mu})
\end{align*}I write for the Lagrangian,\begin{align*}
\mathcal{L} = \dfrac{1}{2} \phi_{,\mu} \phi^{,\mu} -g \phi^4
\end{align*}from which follows ##\frac{\partial \mathcal{L}}{\partial \phi_{,\mu}} = \phi^{,\mu}## and ##\frac{\partial \mathcal{L}}{\partial \phi} = -4g\phi^3##, so that\begin{align*}
\delta \mathcal{L} &= -\epsilon \phi^{,\mu}(2\phi_{,\mu} + x^{\nu} \phi_{,\nu \mu}) + 4 g \epsilon \phi^3 (\phi + x^{\nu} \phi_{,\nu}) \\
&= -4\epsilon( \frac{1}{2} \phi^{,\mu} \phi^{,\mu} - g \phi^4) - 4\epsilon x^{\nu} (\frac{1}{4}\phi^{,\mu} \phi_{,\nu \mu} - g \phi^3 \phi_{,\nu}) \\
&= -4 \epsilon \left[ \mathcal{L} + x^{\nu} (\frac{1}{4}\phi^{,\mu} \phi_{,\nu \mu} - g \phi^3 \phi_{,\nu}) \right] \\
&= -4 \epsilon \left[ \mathcal{L} + x^{\nu} \dfrac{\partial}{\partial x^{\nu}} (\frac{1}{2}\phi^{,\mu} \phi_{,\mu} - \dfrac{1}{4}g \phi^4) \right] \\
\end{align*}which is almost ##- 4\epsilon \partial_{\nu}(x^{\nu} \mathcal{L})## but fails because of the factor of ##1/4## in front of the ##g\phi^4## term...
 
Last edited:
Looks good (though I haven't checked the calculation in dateail). But now you also have to take into account that you have to express ##\mathrm{d}^4 x'## through ##\mathrm{d}^4 x## in the action integral, i.e., there's an additional contribution from the corresponding Jacobian, which you also get by expanding to first order in ##\epsilon##.
 
  • Like
Likes ergospherical
In this video I can see a person walking around lines of curvature on a sphere with an arrow strapped to his waist. His task is to keep the arrow pointed in the same direction How does he do this ? Does he use a reference point like the stars? (that only move very slowly) If that is how he keeps the arrow pointing in the same direction, is that equivalent to saying that he orients the arrow wrt the 3d space that the sphere is embedded in? So ,although one refers to intrinsic curvature...

Similar threads

  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
1K
Replies
3
Views
1K
  • · Replies 7 ·
Replies
7
Views
1K
  • · Replies 9 ·
Replies
9
Views
1K
  • · Replies 5 ·
Replies
5
Views
1K
  • · Replies 7 ·
Replies
7
Views
7K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
3K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
1K
  • · Replies 5 ·
Replies
5
Views
2K
  • · Replies 0 ·
Replies
0
Views
1K