Determining Smoothness Of A Function

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The discussion centers on determining the smoothness of a function defined by the k-th coordinate of a point on a manifold. It establishes that a function f is smooth if its composition with a chart's inverse is also smooth. The calculation of partial derivatives leads to the conclusion that the higher derivatives of the function can be derived from the initial results. Concerns are raised about the function's definition being limited to a single coordinate chart, but it is clarified that multiple charts can exist in an open neighborhood. Ultimately, the relationship between the function and the chart is explored, confirming that the smoothness can be assessed without relying solely on coordinate charts.
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1. The problem statement:

Given a chart \varphi, define a function f by f(p) = x^{k}(p), the k-th coordinate of p (where k is fixed). Is f smooth?

2. Homework Equations :

f is smooth (C^{k}) iff F is smooth (C^{k}), where F: \Re^{n} \rightarrow \Re, F = f \circ \varphi^{-1}

The Attempt at a Solution



\frac{\partial F}{\partial x^{i}} = \sum_{m} \frac{\partial f}{\partial x^{m}} \frac{\partial x^{m}}{\partial x^{i}}

\frac{\partial F}{\partial x^{i}} = \sum_{m} \frac{\partial x^{k}}{\partial x^{m}} \frac{\partial x^{m}}{\partial x^{i}}

\frac{\partial F}{\partial x^{i}} = \delta^{k}_{m} \frac{\partial x^{m}}{\partial x^{i}}

\frac{\partial F}{\partial x^{i}} = \delta^{k}_{i}

I'm not sure if this shows what I'm after as I'm not sure exactly what smoothness means in a given situation.

Thanks in advance for any input.
 
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I forgot to point out that the function "f(p)" is defined on a manifold where p is a point on the manifold.
 
It seems like f can only be defined in the domain of, and relative to, a single coordinate chart; is this what you intend?

Given that, you have the correct calculation. What does the calculation \partial F/\partial x^i = \delta_{ik} tell you about the higher derivatives of F?
 
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I'm not entirely sure what you mean by the first question... why would it only be defined in the domain of and relative to a single coordinate chart? Could there not be another chart in an open neighbourhood which also includes p? The chart in the question seems very general to me.

As for the second question does that mean that the function and the chart are C^{\infty} related?
 
Alex86 said:
I'm not entirely sure what you mean by the first question... why would it only be defined in the domain of and relative to a single coordinate chart? Could there not be another chart in an open neighbourhood which also includes p? The chart in the question seems very general to me.

Suppose x: U \to \mathbb{R}^n and y: V \to \mathbb{R}^n are two coordinate charts (the same functions you have been denoting \varphi) defined on open neighbhorhoods U and V of p. The kth coordinate functions x^k: U \to \mathbb{R} and y^k: V \to \mathbb{R} need not have anything to do with each other.

Alex86 said:
As for the second question does that mean that the function and the chart are C^{\infty} related?

No, that's not what I meant. Denoting the chart again by x instead of \varphi, F = x^k \circ x^{-1} : x(U) \to \mathbb{R} is a function on an open subset x(U) of \mathbb{R}^n. You know its partial derivatives: \partial F/\partial x^i = \delta_{ik}. This contains all the information you need to compute all the higher derivatives of F, and thus tell whether F is a C^\infty function (from an open subset of \mathbb{R}^n to \mathbb{R}; no need for coordinate charts here).
 
Question: A clock's minute hand has length 4 and its hour hand has length 3. What is the distance between the tips at the moment when it is increasing most rapidly?(Putnam Exam Question) Answer: Making assumption that both the hands moves at constant angular velocities, the answer is ## \sqrt{7} .## But don't you think this assumption is somewhat doubtful and wrong?

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