Diagonalising Matrices / Recurrence Relations

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Ted123
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Homework Statement



[PLAIN]http://img530.imageshack.us/img530/6672/linn.jpg

The Attempt at a Solution



For parts (a) and (b) I've found the eigenvalues to be [itex]-\frac{1}{3}[/itex] and [itex]-1[/itex] with corresponding eigenvectors [itex]\begin{bmatrix} -1 \\ 3 \end{bmatrix}[/itex] and [itex]\begin{bmatrix} -1 \\ 1 \end{bmatrix}[/itex] respectively.

Now for part (c) I know there is a way of solving this by diagonalising matrices but I can't remember the method.

The recurrence relation can be written as [itex]\begin{bmatrix} a_n \\ a_{n-1} \end{bmatrix} = \begin{bmatrix} -\frac{4}{3} & -\frac{1}{3} \\ 1 & 0 \end{bmatrix} \begin{bmatrix} a_{n-1} \\ a_{n-2} \end{bmatrix}[/itex]

We can diagonalise [itex]A = \begin{bmatrix} -\frac{4}{3} & -\frac{1}{3} \\ 1 & 0 \end{bmatrix}[/itex] by:

letting [itex]D = \begin{bmatrix} -\frac{1}{3} & 0 \\ 0 & -1 \end{bmatrix}[/itex] and [itex]P = \begin{bmatrix} -1 & -1 \\ 3 & 1 \end{bmatrix}[/itex] so that we have [itex]A= PDP^{-1}[/itex]

Now how do I find [itex]a_n[/itex] from here?
 
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I'll give a hint:

[tex]\left( \begin{array}{c} a_n\\ a_{n-1} \end{array}\right)=\left( \begin{array}{cc} -\frac{4}{3} & -\frac{1}{3}\\ 1 & 0 \end{array}\right)\left( \begin{array}{c} a_{n-1}\\ a_{n-2} \end{array}\right)=\left( \begin{array}{cc} -\frac{4}{3} & -\frac{1}{3}\\ 1 & 0 \end{array}\right)^2\left( \begin{array}{c} a_{n-2}\\ a_{n-3} \end{array}\right)=??\left( \begin{array}{c} a_1\\ a_0 \end{array}\right)[/tex]
 
micromass said:
I'll give a hint:

[tex]\left( \begin{array}{c} a_n\\ a_{n-1} \end{array}\right)=\left( \begin{array}{cc} -\frac{4}{3} & -\frac{1}{3}\\ 1 & 0 \end{array}\right)\left( \begin{array}{c} a_{n-1}\\ a_{n-2} \end{array}\right)=\left( \begin{array}{cc} -\frac{4}{3} & -\frac{1}{3}\\ 1 & 0 \end{array}\right)^2\left( \begin{array}{c} a_{n-2}\\ a_{n-3} \end{array}\right)=??\left( \begin{array}{c} a_1\\ a_0 \end{array}\right)[/tex]

[itex]\begin{bmatrix} a_n \\ a_{n-1} \end{bmatrix} = A^{n-1} \begin{bmatrix} a_1 \\ a_0 \end{bmatrix}[/itex]

so how do I use the diagonalisation? EDIT: I see...
 
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micromass said:
You use the diagonalization to calculate [tex]A^{n-1}[/tex]. For example

[tex]A^3=(PDP^{-1})(PDP^{-1})(PDP^{-1})=PD^3P^{-1}[/tex]

I get [itex]\begin{bmatrix} a_n \\ a_{n-1} \end{bmatrix} = \begin{bmatrix} -\frac{1}{3}\left( -\frac{1}{3} \right) ^{n-1} + (-1)^{n-1} \\ \left( -\frac{1}{3} \right) ^{n-1} - (-1)^{n-1} \end{bmatrix}[/itex]

Reading off the top component, is this the same as the printed formula?
 
micromass said:
Well, it requires some reworking. But it's the same thing. So it looks like you've solved it!

There's actually a further part to the question:

[PLAIN]http://img703.imageshack.us/img703/273/lin0.jpg

After multiplying through how do I 'compare coefficients'?
 
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micromass said:
What happens if you multiply

[tex](x^2+4x+3)(a_0+a_1x+a_2x^2+a_3x^3+...)[/tex]

Multiply these things out. What you get, should be equal to x.

This gives:

[itex]2x = 3a_0 + (4a_0 + 3a_1)x + (a_0 + 4a_1 + 3a_2)x^2 + (a_1 +4a_2 +3a_3)x^3 + (a_2 +4a_3)x^4 + a_3x^5 + \cdots[/itex]

If we equate coefficients we see that

[itex]3a_0 = 0 \Rightarrow a_0 = 0[/itex]

[itex]4a_0 + 3a_1 = 2 \Rightarrow 3a_1 = 2 \Rightarrow a_1 = \frac{2}{3}[/itex]

I could keep going forever but how do I show that the coefficients satisfy the recurrence relation?
 
micromass said:
In general, what will the coefficient of xn be? You'll see your recurrence relation popping up...

In general the coefficient of [itex]x^n[/itex] is [itex]3a_n + 4a_{n-1} + a_{n-2}[/itex]

How does the link with the recurrence relation?
 
micromass said:
Yes. So what does an equal?

Well for [itex]n\in \mathbb{N} \backslash \{1\}[/itex] ,

[itex]3a_n + 4a_{n-1} + a_{n-2} = 0[/itex]

so [itex]a_n = -\frac{4}{3} a_{n-1} - \frac{1}{3} a_{n-2}[/itex]

which is precisely the recurrence relation!
 
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Ted123 said:
Well for [itex]n\in \mathbb{N} \backslash \{1\}[/itex] ,

[itex]3a_n + 4a_{n-1} + a_{n-2} = 0[/itex]

so [itex]a_n = -\frac{4}{3} a_{n-1} - \frac{1}{3} a_{n-2}[/itex]

which is precisely the recurrence relation!

The characteristic polynomial is given by

[itex]c_A (\lambda ) = \begin{vmatrix} \displaystyle -\frac{4}{3} - \lambda & \displaystyle -\frac{1}{3} \\ 1 & -\lambda \end{vmatrix} =0[/itex]

[itex]\Rightarrow (-\frac{4}{3} - \lambda ) \left(-\lambda \right) - ( -\frac{1}{3} ) ( 1) = 0[/itex]

[itex]\displaystyle \Rightarrow \frac{4}{3} \lambda + \lambda ^2 + \frac{1}{3} = 0[/itex]

[itex]\displaystyle \Rightarrow 3\lambda ^2 + 4\lambda + 1=0[/itex]

[itex]\displaystyle \Rightarrow (3\lambda +1)(\lambda +1)=0[/itex]

[itex]\displaystyle \Rightarrow \lambda = -\frac{1}{3}[/itex] or [itex]\lambda = -1[/itex]

[itex]\displaystyle \therefore -\frac{1}{3}[/itex] and [itex]-1[/itex] are eigenvalues of [itex]A[/itex]

The eigenvectors

[itex]\begin{bmatrix} x \\ y \end{bmatrix}[/itex] of A with eigenvalue -1/3 satisfy the vector equation

[itex]\begin{bmatrix} -1 & -\frac{1}{3} \\ 1 & \frac{1}{3} \end{bmatrix} \begin{bmatrix} x \\ y \end{bmatrix} = \begin{bmatrix} 0 \\ 0 \end{bmatrix}[/itex]

which is equivalent to the single linear equation [itex]x = -\frac{y}{3}[/itex]

Hence the eigenvectors of A with eigenvalue -1/3 are [itex]\begin{bmatrix} -\frac{y}{3} \\ y \end{bmatrix}[/itex] where [itex]y \neq 0[/itex]
 
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Ted123 said:
The characteristic polynomial is given by

[itex]c_A (\lambda ) = \begin{vmatrix} \displaystyle -\frac{4}{3} - \lambda & \displaystyle -\frac{1}{3} \\ 1 & -\lambda \end{vmatrix} =0[/itex]

[itex]\Rightarrow (-\frac{4}{3} - \lambda ) \left(-\lambda \right) - ( -\frac{1}{3} ) ( 1) = 0[/itex]

[itex]\displaystyle \Rightarrow \frac{4}{3} \lambda + \lambda ^2 + \frac{1}{3} = 0[/itex]

[itex]\displaystyle \Rightarrow 3\lambda ^2 + 4\lambda + 1=0[/itex]

[itex]\displaystyle \Rightarrow (3\lambda +1)(\lambda +1)=0[/itex]

[itex]\displaystyle \Rightarrow \lambda = -\frac{1}{3}[/itex] or [itex]\lambda = -1[/itex]

[itex]\displaystyle \therefore -\frac{1}{3}[/itex] and [itex]-1[/itex] are eigenvalues of [itex]A[/itex]

The eigenvectors

[itex]\begin{bmatrix} x \\ y \end{bmatrix}[/itex] of A with eigenvalue -1/3 satisfy the vector equation

[itex]\begin{bmatrix} -1 & -\frac{1}{3} \\ 1 & \frac{1}{3} \end{bmatrix} \begin{bmatrix} x \\ y \end{bmatrix} = \begin{bmatrix} 0 \\ 0 \end{bmatrix}[/itex]

which is equivalent to the single linear equation [itex]x = -\frac{y}{3}[/itex]

Hence the eigenvectors of A with eigenvalue -1/3 are [itex]\begin{bmatrix} -\frac{y}{3} \\ y \end{bmatrix}[/itex] where [itex]y \neq 0[/itex]

Then

[itex]AP = \begin{bmatrix} -\frac{4}{3} & -\frac{1}{3} \\ 1 & 0 \end{bmatrix} \begin{bmatrix} -1 & -1 \\ 3 & 1 \end{bmatrix}= \begin{bmatrix} \frac{1}{3} & 1 \\ -1 & -1 \end{bmatrix}[/itex]

and

[itex]PD = \begin{bmatrix} -1 & -1 \\ 3 & 1 \end{bmatrix} \begin{bmatrix} -\frac{1}{3} & 0 \\ 0 & -1 \end{bmatrix} = \begin{bmatrix} \frac{1}{3} & 1 \\ -1 & -1 \end{bmatrix}[/itex]

and [itex]P[/itex] is invertible since [itex]\text{det}(P) = (-1)(1) - (-1)(3) - -1+3=2 \neq 0[/itex]

Now [itex]\begin{bmatrix} a_n \\ a_{n-1} \end{bmatrix} = \begin{bmatrix} -1 & -1 \\ 3 & 1 \end{bmatrix} \begin{bmatrix} -\frac{1}{3} & 0 \\ 0 & -1 \end{bmatrix} ^{n-1} \begin{bmatrix} \frac{1}{2} & \frac{1}{2} \\ -\frac{3}{2} & -\frac{1}{2} \end{bmatrix} \begin{bmatrix} a_1 \\ a_0 \end{bmatrix}[/itex]

[itex]= \begin{bmatrix} a_n \\ a_{n-1} \end{bmatrix} = \begin{bmatrix} -1 & -1 \\ 3 & 1 \end{bmatrix} \begin{bmatrix} (-\frac{1}{3})^{n-1} & 0 \\ 0 & (-1)^{n-1} \end{bmatrix} \begin{bmatrix} \frac{1}{2} & \frac{1}{2} \\ -\frac{3}{2} & -\frac{1}{2} \end{bmatrix} \begin{bmatrix} \frac{2}{3} \\ 0 \end{bmatrix}[/itex]

[itex]= \begin{bmatrix} a_n \\ a_{n-1} \end{bmatrix} = \begin{bmatrix} -(-\frac{1}{3})^{n-1} & -(-1)^{n-1} \\ 3(-\frac{1}{3})^{n-1} & (-1)^{n-1} \end{bmatrix} \begin{bmatrix} \frac{1}{3} \\ -1 \end{bmatrix}[/itex]

[itex]\begin{bmatrix} a_n \\ a_{n-1} \end{bmatrix} = \begin{bmatrix} -\frac{1}{3} ( -\frac{1}{3} ) ^{n-1} + (-1)^{n-1} \\ ( -\frac{1}{3} ) ^{n-1} - (-1)^{n-1} \end{bmatrix}[/itex]

Reading off the top component we see that [itex]a_n = -\frac{1}{3} ( -\frac{1}{3} ) ^{n-1} + (-1)^{n-1}[/itex]

[itex]a_n = -\frac{1}{3} ( -\frac{1}{3} ) ^n ( -\frac{1}{3} ) ^{-1} + (-1)^n (-1)^{-1}[/itex]

[itex]a_n = ( -\frac{1}{3} ) ^n - (-1)^n[/itex]

[itex]a_n = \frac{(-1)^n}{3^n} - (-1)^n[/itex]

[itex]a_n = (-1)^n \left( \frac{1}{3^n} - 1 \right)[/itex]
 
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[itex]{\bf p}(t) = (f(t)\cos\,t,f(t)\sin\,t)[/itex]

[itex]{\bf p}'(t) = (f'(t)\cos\,t - f(t)\sin\,t , f'(t)\sin\,t + f(t) \cos\,t)[/itex]

[itex]\displaystyle \oint_C -\frac{y}{x^2+y^2} \; dx + \frac{x}{x^2+y^2} \; dy[/itex]

[itex]\displaystyle = \int^{\pi}_{-\pi} \left( -\frac{y}{x^2+y^2} \frac{dx}{dt} + \frac{x}{x^2+y^2} \frac{dy}{dt} \right) \; dt[/itex]

[itex]\displaystyle = \int^{\pi}_{-\pi} \bigg \{ \left( -\frac{f(t)\sin\,t}{f^2(t)\cos^2 \, t} + f^2(t) \sin^2 \, t \right) \left( f'(t) \cos \, t - f(t)\sin \, t \right)[/itex]

[itex]+ \left( \frac{f(t)\cos \, t}{f^2(t)\cos^2 \, t} + f^2(t) \sin^2 \, t \right) \left( f'(t)\sin \, t + f(t)\cos \, t \right) \bigg \} \; dt[/itex]

[itex]\displaystyle = \int^{\pi}_{-\pi} \left( -\frac{f(t)f'(t) \sin\,t\cos\,t}{f^2(t)} + \frac{f^2(t)\sin^2 t}{f^2(t)} + \frac{f(t)f'(t) \sin\,t\cos\,t}{f^2(t)} + \frac{f^2(t)\cos^2 t}{f^2(t)} \right) \;dt[/itex]

[itex]\displaystyle = \int^{\pi}_{-\pi} \left( \sin^2 t + \cos^2 t \right) \;dt[/itex]

[itex]\displaystyle = \int^{\pi}_{-\pi} \;dt = \left[ t \right]^{\pi}_{-\pi} = 2\pi[/itex]

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2(a) Call the 3 sections of the curve C in the order described in the question [itex]C_1, C_2 ,C_3[/itex] respectively.

Then [itex]\displaystyle \int_C = \int_{C_1+C_2+C_3} = \int_{C_1} + \int_{C_2} + \int_{C_3}[/itex]

So parametrising [itex]C_1 , C_2 , C_3[/itex] as follows,

[itex]C_1[/itex] : For [itex]0 \leq t \leq 1\;,\;p(t) = (1-t)(0,0) + t(R,0) = (tR,0)[/itex]

[itex]p'(t) = (R,0)[/itex]

[itex]C_2[/itex] : For [itex]0 \leq t \leq \frac{\pi}{2}\;,\;p(t) = (R\cos\,t , R\sin\,t)[/itex]

[itex]p'(t) = (-R\sin\,t , R\cos\,t)[/itex]

[itex]C_3[/itex] : For [itex]0 \leq t \leq 1\;,\;p(t) = (1-t)(0,R) + t(0,0) = (0,R-Rt)[/itex]

[itex]p'(t) = (0,-R)[/itex]

Hence [itex]\displaystyle \int_{C_1} = \int_{C_1} \left( -xy^2 \frac{dx}{dt} + x^2y \frac{dy}{dt} \right)\;dt[/itex]

[itex]\displaystyle = \int^1_0 \bigg \{ (-tR)(0)(R) + (R^2)(0)(0) \bigg \}\;dt = 0[/itex]

[itex]\displaystyle \int_{C_2} = \int^{\frac{\pi}{2}}_0 \bigg \{ (-R\cos\,t)(R^2\sin\,t)(-R\sin\,t) + (R^2\cos^2t)(R\sin\,t)(R\cos\,t) \bigg \} \;dt[/itex]

[itex]\displaystyle = R^4 \int^{\frac{\pi}{2}}_0 \left( \cos\,t\,\sin^3t + \sin\,t\,\cos^3\,t \right) \;dt[/itex]

[itex]\displaystyle = R^4 \left( \frac{1}{4} + \frac{1}{4} \right) = \frac{R^4}{2}[/itex]

[itex]\displaystyle \int_{C_3} = \int^1_0 \bigg \{ (0)\left( (R-Rt)^2 \right)(0) + (0)(R-Rt)(-R) \bigg \} \;dt =0[/itex]

Hence [itex]\displaystyle \int_C = 0 + \frac{R^4}{2} + 0 = \frac{R^4}{2}[/itex]

[itex]\sin^3\,t[/itex] and [itex]\cos^3\,t[/itex]

2(b) Let [itex]P = -xy^2[/itex] and [itex]Q = x^2y[/itex]

Then Green's theorem says that [itex]\displaystyle \oint_C P\;dx + Q\;dy = \iint_S \left( \frac{\partial Q}{\partial x} - \frac{\partial P}{\partial y} \right) \;dxdy[/itex]

So (calling the integral I) [itex]\displaystyle I = \iint_S (2xy + 2xy) \;dxdy = \iint_S 4xy\;dxdy[/itex]
 
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