A Did rotating polarizer show violations of Bell's Inequality?

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The discussion centers on the application of Bell's inequality in experiments involving polarized light and entangled photons. It highlights the need for a common reference frame when evaluating measurement outcomes, arguing that the lack of a consistent frame leads to confusion about the validity of the inequality. The conversation also touches on the implications of Noether's theorem and the differences between entangled and mixed polarization states. Participants emphasize that entangled photons exist in a superposition of states rather than having a defined polarization, which complicates the interpretation of results. Ultimately, the thread questions the assumptions made regarding the violation of Bell's inequality and the relevance of classical laws like Malus' law in quantum contexts.
  • #61
PeterDonis said:
Does that mean that the issue you were concerned about is no longer an issue?
It means I do not wish to continue
 
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  • #62
Ian J Miller said:
Assume a source that provides entangled photons, all of which are polarized in one plane….
Which of course is impossible. If it were possible then violations of Bell’s theorem would be the least of our problems - superluminal communication would be possible and we would have to deal with operational tachyonic antitelephones.
 
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  • #64
Nugatory said:
Which of course is impossible. If it were possible then violations of Bell’s theorem would be the least of our problems - superluminal communication would be possible and we would have to deal with operational tachyonic antitelephones.
Which is impossible why? I do not know whether that can be done now, but I am very skeptical of assertions that something is technically impossible without some very strong proof. Consider a down converter. The crystal acts occasionally to produce two photons with half frequency and opposite polarisation. Why is it impossible that some day a crystal might be found that sends the photons out along crystal planes? (I am unaware of how current crystals produce their polarised photons and I would be interested if someone could explain.

Then where did this superluminal transmission come from? It is usually discounted from non-local systems that violate Bell's inequality, so where does something that complies with Bell's inequality suddenly make superluminal communication possible?

Suppose the photons go through a polarization filter that is aligned with A+. Are you saying that by going through the filter, they are no longer entangled? Why? Because somehow they have interacted with the filter, where the others have been filtered out? Then let us assume they are no longer entangled as you say, and construct the parallel filters on each side of the source. Bell's inequality is now complied with. Now, rotate the filters at high speed maintaining the parallel axes. Now Bell's inequality will be violated, by the standard interpretation, yet according to you they are no longer entangled. You can switch on and off whatever property you think such violations entail.

You may argue the filter removed the superposition possibilities, but how do you know there ever were such possibilities? How do you know in the Aspect experiment that an electron with a specific spin did not generate a photon with one only polarization when it collapsed? There is no observational evidence for the superposition as a physical entity, as opposed to the "I don't know what it is" when predicting probabilities.

In the above when I said "I was hoping to end the discussion," I was trying to be polite. The discussion had reduced to whether moving a set configuration with no change of constraints produced new results or was merely reproducing the first. When it was stated that this did produce new results, that was the crux of the matter, but it was not explained. I was considering the system was invariant to rotation, so any such rotation was a repeat of the first. The response was that it was not a repeat. Since there is no way to settle that, as far as i can see, I wished to withdraw.

If you wish to answer the above questions, please do so with observational evidence. You cannot confirm a theory by citing another theory unless there is clear observational support for it.
 
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  • #65
Ian J Miller said:
Which is impossible why?
Because, as I said in post #59, there is no such thing as an entangled state of photons whose polarizations are all restricted to a single plane.

Ian J Miller said:
I am very skeptical of assertions that something is technically impossible without some very strong proof.
The proof is simple: an entangled two-photon state is a state that cannot be written as a product of two single-photon states. The Hilbert space of single-photon polarization states is two-dimensional, i.e., it has two basis vectors. Restricting polarization to a single plane limits you to just one of those two dimensions, and hence just one basis vector. And it is impossible to write a two-photon state using just one single-photon basis vector that is not a product of two one-photon states. Why? Because with one basis vector, there is only one possible two-photon state, the product of that basis vector with itself. (Sure, you can multiply this product by a complex number, but that does not change the physical state; physical states are rays in the Hilbert space.)
 
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  • #66
Ian J Miller said:
You cannot confirm a theory by citing another theory unless there is clear observational support for it.
Apparently you are unaware of the huge amount of observational support for the QM model of photon polarizations that, for example, I made use of in post #65 just now, and that I strongly suspect @Nugatory had in mind when he made his post that you responded to. Refusing to consider arguments using that theory is not a reasonable position to take.
 
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  • #67
Ian J Miller said:
1. Which is impossible why? I do not know whether that can be done now, but I am very skeptical of assertions that something is technically impossible without some very strong proof. Consider a down converter. The crystal acts occasionally to produce two photons with half frequency and opposite polarisation. Why is it impossible that some day a crystal might be found that sends the photons out along crystal planes? (I am unaware of how current crystals produce their polarised photons and I would be interested if someone could explain.

2. Suppose the photons go through a polarization filter that is aligned with A+. Are you saying that by going through the filter, they are no longer entangled? Why? Because somehow they have interacted with the filter, where the others have been filtered out? Then let us assume they are no longer entangled as you say, and construct the parallel filters on each side of the source. Bell's inequality is now complied with.

3. Now, rotate the filters at high speed maintaining the parallel axes. Now Bell's inequality will be violated, by the standard interpretation, yet according to you they are no longer entangled. You can switch on and off whatever property you think such violations entail.
It hurts us all when you ask questions (and deny established science) that are beyond your understanding of entanglement. Hopefully you are here to learn so, here are a few specific answers to your questions above:

1. Entangled photons can be polarized along a specific plane. However, such photons are not *polarization* entangled. Any pair of photons that have known polarization will *not* be polarization entangled. This is axiomatic, and should be obvious, as they are in separable states. (Photons exiting a common laser are polarized the same, but are not entangled.)

2. The same is true of polarization entangled photons AFTER they pass through a polarizer. Once polarization is known, they are no longer entangled. You know this because they won't any longer show perfect (anti)correlations (at all matching angles). That's how experimenters know they have a good source of entangled photon pairs; they calibrate to get as close to perfect correlation as possible. Only entangled pairs have this property at identical angle settings.

3. You can rotate the measurement polarizers very rapidly (keeping Alice's and Bob's settings parallel as the photons pass through), and they WILL show perfect (anti)correlation as you would expect. Variations on this are performed in 2 of the references below.

4. There are plenty of sources to learn about parametric down conversion. Here is one that explains this as part of their overall objective of performing a Bell test.

a. https://arxiv.org/abs/quant-ph/0205171

Further, there are many ways to entangle a pair of photons other than down conversion (which is one of the easiest and cheapest to study). Here is one of the earliest and most famous Bell tests, co-written by 2022 Nobel winner Alain Aspect:

b. https://journals.aps.org/prl/pdf/10.1103/PhysRevLett.47.460

And in fact, entangled photons can be produced that DON'T come from a common source! They can be produced by independent sources that are outside each other's light cones (i.e. the entangled photons are never in a common light cone). This makes it very difficult to assert that there is some kind of element that restores conventional locality (I am not sure if you are asserting that or not). This is co-written by another 2022 Nobel winner, Anton Zeilinger.

c. https://arxiv.org/abs/0809.3991

Good luck!

-DrC
 
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  • #68
DrChinese said:
It hurts us all when you ask questions (and deny established science) that are beyond your understanding of entanglement. Hopefully you are here to learn so, here are a few specific answers to your questions above:

1. Entangled photons can be polarized along a specific plane. However, such photons are not *polarization* entangled. Any pair of photons that have known polarization will *not* be polarization entangled. This is axiomatic, and should be obvious, as they are in separable states. (Photons exiting a common laser are polarized the same, but are not entangled.)

2. The same is true of polarization entangled photons AFTER they pass through a polarizer. Once polarization is known, they are no longer entangled. You know this because they won't any longer show perfect (anti)correlations (at all matching angles). That's how experimenters know they have a good source of entangled photon pairs; they calibrate to get as close to perfect correlation as possible. Only entangled pairs have this property at identical angle settings.

3. You can rotate the measurement polarizers very rapidly (keeping Alice's and Bob's settings parallel as the photons pass through), and they will show perfect (anti)correlation as you would expect. Variations on this are performed in 2 of the references below.

4. There are plenty of sources to learn about parametric down conversion. Here is one that explains this as part of their overall objective of performing a Bell test.

a. https://arxiv.org/abs/quant-ph/0205171

Further, there are many ways to entangle a pair of photons other than down conversion (which is one of the easiest and cheapest to study). Here is one of the earliest and most famous Bell tests, co-written by 2022 Nobel winner Alain Aspect:

b. https://journals.aps.org/prl/pdf/10.1103/PhysRevLett.47.460

And in fact, entangled photons can be produced that DON'T come from a common source! They can be produced by independent sources that are outside each other's light cones (i.e. the entangled photons are never in a common light cone). This makes it very difficult to assert that there is some kind of element that restores conventional locality (I am not sure if you are asserting that or not). This is co-written by another 2022 Nobel winner, Anton Zeilinger.

c. https://arxiv.org/abs/0809.3991

Good luck!

-DrC
1. What I meant was entangled photons polarized along a specific plane. I apologize if it did not come out that way. I don't understand your alternative, but since you say it is impossible, and I didn't mean it, no need to go further.

2. I am not sure I know what you are saying here. Are you saying once you know the polarization they no longer give the Bell correlations? If not, what correlations do you mean?

4. I mentioned down-conversion because it involved a crystal. I did not mean to imply that was the only way to do it; merely that it was an option. Thank you for the links. The first one answered one of my questions. Finally, I was not asserting there was switching between locality and non-locality

Again, thank you for your repsonse.;
 
  • #69
PeterDonis said:
Because, as I said in post #59, there is no such thing as an entangled state of photons whose polarizations are all restricted to a single plane.The proof is simple: an entangled two-photon state is a state that cannot be written as a product of two single-photon states. The Hilbert space of single-photon polarization states is two-dimensional, i.e., it has two basis vectors. Restricting polarization to a single plane limits you to just one of those two dimensions, and hence just one basis vector. And it is impossible to write a two-photon state using just one single-photon basis vector that is not a product of two one-photon states. Why? Because with one basis vector, there is only one possible two-photon state, the product of that basis vector with itself. (Sure, you can multiply this product by a complex number, but that does not change the physical state; physical states are rays in the Hilbert space.)
I am afraid we disagree again. Physical states may be represented mathematically as rays in Hilbert space, but the photons, in my opinion, remain in standard three-dimensional space, or if you wish, 4-dimensional spacetime. In the Aspect experiment, both photons have the same polarization as seen by detectors. As for a sequence of entangled photons in one polarization plane, I cannot produce them, but I would be very surprised if they are never produced. I had never heard of photons produced over extended time being considered as one state, so I am learning, albeit slowly.
 
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  • #70
Ian J Miller said:
Suppose the photons go through a polarization filter that is aligned with A+. Are you saying that by going through the filter, they are no longer entangled?
Yes, and I am resisting the temptation to say "Yes, of course". Any measurement, any interaction that collapses the wave function, any interaction that leads to decoherence, any interaction with anything that fixes the polarization plane of one photon, .... (these are different ways of saying the same thing) will break the entanglement.

Why? The entangled state is (by the definition of entanglement) the superposition ##\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}(|\alpha\beta\rangle\pm|\beta\alpha\rangle)## where ##\alpha## and ##\beta## denote the two possible polarization states along the axis we have chosen and the position of the labels within the ket selects which particle. An interaction that yields the result ##\alpha## at the left-hand detector will leave the post-measurement state ##|\alpha\beta\rangle##; an interaction that yields the result ##\beta## at the left-hand detector will leave the post-measurement state ##|\beta\alpha\rangle##. Neither of these is an entangled state.
 
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  • #71
Ian J Miller said:
Physical states may be represented mathematically as rays in Hilbert space, but the photons, in my opinion, remain in standard three-dimensional space, or if you wish, 4-dimensional spacetime.
Sorry, but you don't get to just use your opinion.

At this point you are verging on personal theory and therefore on receiving a warning. You don't get to just make up your own physics.

Ian J Miller said:
In the Aspect experiment, both photons have the same polarization as seen by detectors that are oriented in the same direction.
See the bolded qualifier, which is crucial.

With the qualifier, the statement is true, but this polarization is not restricted to one plane. The two detectors will always show the same polarization no matter which direction they are oriented, as long as the two detectors are both oriented in the same direction. The entangled photon state that produces these results is not at all the same as a two-photon state that is produced by restricting the polarization to one plane at the source. The latter state is not and cannot be an entangled state.

Ian J Miller said:
As for a sequence of entangled photons in one polarization plane, I cannot produce them, but I would be very surprised if they are never produced.
Then you should indeed be very surprised, because the argument I have already given for why they cannot be produced makes use of the same QM model of photons that, as I have said, already has a huge amount of experimental support. That's why nobody has produced such a state: because it's impossible, and everyone in the field knows it.
 
  • #72
After a Mentor discussion, this thread is now closed. @Ian J Miller -- please check your PMs in a few minutes...
 
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