paridiso
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If arctan(x) = tan(x)^-1 and since tan(x) = sin(x)/cos(x) is not arctan(x) = cot(x). I know something's not right here but what is it?
Thanks.
Thanks.
The discussion clarifies the distinction between the functions arctan(x) and cot(x). Arctan(x), defined as tan-1(x), is the inverse function of tan(x), while cot(x) is defined as 1/tan(x). The confusion arises from the notation, where arctan(x) does not equate to cot(x) due to their differing mathematical definitions and properties. Understanding these differences is crucial for accurate function application in trigonometry.
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rock.freak667 said:No no.
Cot(x)=1/tan(x)
arctan(x)=tan-1(x) \neq1/tan(x)