Difference between arctan(x) and cot(x)

  • Thread starter paridiso
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  • #1
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If arctan(x) = tan(x)^-1 and since tan(x) = sin(x)/cos(x) is not arctan(x) = cot(x). I know something's not right here but what is it?

Thanks.
 

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  • #2
rock.freak667
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No no.
Cot(x)=1/tan(x)

arctan(x)=tan-1(x) [itex]\neq[/itex]1/tan(x)
 
  • #3
671
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No no.
Cot(x)=1/tan(x)

arctan(x)=tan-1(x) [itex]\neq[/itex]1/tan(x)

Just to clarify, that notation doesn't mean the multiplicative inverse in this context, but the inverse function.

[tex]tan(x)=y[/tex]
[tex]Arctan(y)=x[/tex]
With whatever restrictions are necessary so that those are functions and not just relations.
 
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