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Difference between arctan(x) and cot(x)

  1. Jul 20, 2009 #1
    If arctan(x) = tan(x)^-1 and since tan(x) = sin(x)/cos(x) is not arctan(x) = cot(x). I know something's not right here but what is it?

    Thanks.
     
  2. jcsd
  3. Jul 20, 2009 #2

    rock.freak667

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    Homework Helper

    No no.
    Cot(x)=1/tan(x)

    arctan(x)=tan-1(x) [itex]\neq[/itex]1/tan(x)
     
  4. Jul 21, 2009 #3
    Just to clarify, that notation doesn't mean the multiplicative inverse in this context, but the inverse function.

    [tex]tan(x)=y[/tex]
    [tex]Arctan(y)=x[/tex]
    With whatever restrictions are necessary so that those are functions and not just relations.
     
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