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## Main Question or Discussion Point

I am trying to solve an integral that has ##\frac{1}{1+x^2}## as a factor in the integrand. In my book it is claimed that if we use ##\displaystyle \frac{1}{1+x^2} = \sum_{n=0}^{\infty} (-1)^n \frac{1}{x^{2n+2}}## the problem can be solved immediately. But, I am confused as to where this series representation comes from... It certainly has nothing to do with Taylor series it seems.