Undergrad Differential form of the velocity equation in a non-standard configuration

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The discussion revolves around the differentiation of the velocity equation in special relativity for a particle in a non-standard configuration. The original equation for the particle's velocity in frame S' is presented, followed by a complex differentiation process that leads to a challenging expression for d u'. Participants suggest breaking down the vector equation into components for clarity and debate the ambiguity in the vector product notation used in the original formula. There is a consensus that the notation may be incorrect, which could hinder achieving the final result. The conversation emphasizes the need for careful attention to vector operations and potential simplifications in the differentiation process.
Shirish
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I'm reading a text on special relativity (Core Principles of Special and General Relativity), in which we start with the equation for composition of velocities in non-standard configuration. Frame ##S'## velocity w.r.t. ##S## is ##\vec v##, and the velocity of some particle in ##S'## is ##\vec u##. Then the particle's velocity in ##S'## is:

$$\vec u'=\frac{\vec u-\vec v}{1-\vec u.\vec v\ /\ c^2}+\frac{\gamma}{c^2(1+\gamma)}\frac{\vec v\times(\vec v\times\vec u)}{(1-\vec u.\vec v\ /\ c^2)}$$

where ##\gamma=\frac{1}{\sqrt{1-v^2/c^2}}## and ##\vec v## and ##c## are constants. Then the text states that "differentiating" the above equation gives us
$$d\vec u'=\frac{1}{\gamma(1-\vec u.\vec v\ /\ c^2)^2}\bigg[d\vec u-\frac{\gamma}{c^2(1+\gamma)}(\vec v.d\vec u)\ \vec v+\frac{1}{c^2}\vec v\times\vec u\times d\vec u\bigg]$$

I'm struggling with proving this. Just to reduce some of the notational headache, if we denote ##f(\vec u)=\frac{1}{1-\vec u.\vec v\ /\ c^2}##, then
$$df(\vec u)=\frac{f(\vec u)^2\vec v.d\vec u}{c^2}$$

Also let ##K\equiv \frac{\gamma}{c^2(1+\gamma)}##. Then the original equation is:
$$\vec u'=f(\vec u)(\vec u-\vec v)+Kf(\vec u)\ (\vec v\times (\vec v\times\vec u))$$

Differentiating (writing ##f## without its argument for convenience),
$$d\vec u'=(\vec u-\vec v)\ df+fd\vec u + K\ df\ (\vec v\times (\vec v\times\vec u)) + Kf\vec v\ (\vec v.d\vec u)-Kfv^2d\vec u$$
$$=\frac{f^2(\vec u-\vec v)\vec v.d\vec u}{c^2}+fd\vec u + K\ \frac{f^2\vec v.d\vec u}{c^2}\ (\vec v\times (\vec v\times\vec u)) + Kf\vec v\ (\vec v.d\vec u)-Kfv^2d\vec u$$
$$=f^2\bigg[\frac{(\vec u-\vec v)\vec v.d\vec u}{c^2}+\frac{d\vec u}{f} + K\ \frac{\vec v.d\vec u}{c^2}\ (\vec v\times (\vec v\times\vec u)) + \frac{K}{f}\vec v\ (\vec v.d\vec u)-\frac{K}{f}v^2d\vec u\bigg]$$

Beyond this, I'm really not able to get to the final result despite trying a bunch of times. Not sure if I'm overcomplicating things or missing some magical identity that simplifies everything. Would appreciate any help. Thanks!
 
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Shirish said:
I'm reading a text on special relativity (Core Principles of Special and General Relativity), in which we start with the equation for composition of velocities in non-standard configuration. Frame S′ velocity w.r.t. S is v→, and the velocity of some particle in S′ is u→. Then the particle's velocity in S′ is:
I read your "and the velocity of some particle in S′ is u→. " as "and the velocity of some particle in S(NO DASH) is u→. ". Just a confirmation.
 
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anuttarasammyak said:
I read your "and the velocity of some particle in S′ is u→. " as "and the velocity of some particle in S(NO DASH) is u→. ". Just a confirmation.
Yes that's correct, there shouldn't be a prime. I'll edit the question.
 
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Shirish said:
I'm reading a text on special relativity (Core Principles of Special and General Relativity), in which we start with the equation for composition of velocities in non-standard configuration. Frame ##S'## velocity w.r.t. ##S## is ##\vec v##, and the velocity of some particle in ##S'## is ##\vec u##. Then the particle's velocity in ##S'## is:

$$\vec u'=\frac{\vec u-\vec v}{1-\vec u.\vec v\ /\ c^2}+\frac{\gamma}{c^2(1+\gamma)}\frac{\vec v\times(\vec v\times\vec u)}{(1-\vec u.\vec v\ /\ c^2)}$$

where ##\gamma=\frac{1}{\sqrt{1-v^2/c^2}}## and ##\vec v## and ##c## are constants. Then the text states that "differentiating" the above equation gives us
$$d\vec u'=\frac{1}{\gamma(1-\vec u.\vec v\ /\ c^2)^2}\bigg[d\vec u-\frac{\gamma}{c^2(1+\gamma)}(\vec v.d\vec u)\ \vec v+\frac{1}{c^2}\vec v\times\vec u\times d\vec u\bigg]$$

I'm struggling with proving this. Just to reduce some of the notational headache, if we denote ##f(\vec u)=\frac{1}{1-\vec u.\vec v\ /\ c^2}##, then
$$df(\vec u)=\frac{f(\vec u)^2\vec v.d\vec u}{c^2}$$

Also let ##K\equiv \frac{\gamma}{c^2(1+\gamma)}##. Then the original equation is:
$$\vec u'=f(\vec u)(\vec u-\vec v)+Kf(\vec u)\ (\vec v\times (\vec v\times\vec u))$$

Differentiating (writing ##f## without its argument for convenience),
$$d\vec u'=(\vec u-\vec v)\ df+fd\vec u + K\ df\ (\vec v\times (\vec v\times\vec u)) + Kf\vec v\ (\vec v.d\vec u)-Kfv^2d\vec u$$
$$=\frac{f^2(\vec u-\vec v)\vec v.d\vec u}{c^2}+fd\vec u + K\ \frac{f^2\vec v.d\vec u}{c^2}\ (\vec v\times (\vec v\times\vec u)) + Kf\vec v\ (\vec v.d\vec u)-Kfv^2d\vec u$$
$$=f^2\bigg[\frac{(\vec u-\vec v)\vec v.d\vec u}{c^2}+\frac{d\vec u}{f} + K\ \frac{\vec v.d\vec u}{c^2}\ (\vec v\times (\vec v\times\vec u)) + \frac{K}{f}\vec v\ (\vec v.d\vec u)-\frac{K}{f}v^2d\vec u\bigg]$$

Beyond this, I'm really not able to get to the final result despite trying a bunch of times. Not sure if I'm overcomplicating things or missing some magical identity that simplifies everything. Would appreciate any help. Thanks!

As that's a vector equation, you could try doing it for one component at a time. Start with ##du_x##. The other two should be the same.
 
I am an old student of vector mathematics. Vector product
\mathbf{v}\times\mathbf{u}\times\mathbf{du}
in the second formula of OP seems ambiguous. Is it
(\mathbf{v}\times\mathbf{u})\times\mathbf{du},
\mathbf{v}\times(\mathbf{u}\times\mathbf{du})
or other?
 
anuttarasammyak said:
I am an old student of vector mathematics. Vector product
\mathbf{v}\times\mathbf{u}\times\mathbf{du}
in the second formula of OP seems ambiguous. Is it
(\mathbf{v}\times\mathbf{u})\times\mathbf{du},
\mathbf{v}\times(\mathbf{u}\times\mathbf{du})
or other?
That's how it's written in the book, unfortunately. I'm thinking it should be ##(\mathbf{v}\times\mathbf{u})\times d\mathbf{u}##, since ##\mathbf{v}\times(\mathbf{u}\times d\mathbf{u})## is zero as ##\mathbf{u}## and ##d\mathbf{u}## are parallel.
 
We can accelerate a moving body in any direction, so not always zero. It seems that formula in the textbook has something wrong. In the way of OP you may have a chance to get the right result.
 
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