MHB Differentiating a power series

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on proving the equality $$\frac{1}{(1 - x)^2} = 1 + 2x + 3x^2 + 4x^3 ...$$ for the interval $-1 < x < 1$. The geometric series $$\frac{1}{1 - x} = \sum_{n = 0}^{\infty} x^n$$ serves as the foundation, with its derivative yielding the series $$1 + 2x + 3x^2 + 4x^3 + ...$$. The radius of convergence for the geometric series is confirmed as $R = 1$, validating the conditions under which the series converges.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of geometric series and their convergence properties
  • Knowledge of differentiation techniques for power series
  • Familiarity with the concept of radius of convergence
  • Basic algebraic manipulation of series and functions
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the properties of geometric series and their derivatives
  • Learn about power series and their convergence criteria
  • Explore the application of Taylor series in function approximation
  • Investigate the relationship between series and their derivatives in calculus
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Mathematics students, educators, and anyone interested in understanding power series and their applications in calculus.

tmt1
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I need to prove that for $-1 < x < 1$

$$\frac{1}{(1 - x)^2} = 1 + 2x + 3x^2 + 4x^3 ...$$

So, according to the textbook, the geometric series has a radius of convergence $R = 1$ (I'm not sure how this is true).

In any case we can compare it to:

$$\frac{1}{1 - x} =\sum_{n = 0}^{\infty} x^n$$

If we differentiate it, we will get:

$$1 + \sum_{n = 1}^{\infty} (n + 1) x^n$$

(Or, $1 + 2x + 3x^2 + 4x^3 + 5x^4 ...$)

So, somehow I need to prove that $\frac{1}{(1 - x)^2}$ is equal to the derivative of $\sum_{n = 0}^{\infty} x^n$ and I'm not sure how to do that.
 
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tmt said:
I need to prove that for $-1 < x < 1$

$$\frac{1}{(1 - x)^2} = 1 + 2x + 3x^2 + 4x^3 ...$$

So, according to the textbook, the geometric series has a radius of convergence $R = 1$ (I'm not sure how this is true).

In any case we can compare it to:

$$\frac{1}{1 - x} =\sum_{n = 0}^{\infty} x^n$$

If we differentiate it, we will get:

$$1 + \sum_{n = 1}^{\infty} (n + 1) x^n$$

(Or, $1 + 2x + 3x^2 + 4x^3 + 5x^4 ...$)

So, somehow I need to prove that $\frac{1}{(1 - x)^2}$ is equal to the derivative of $\sum_{n = 0}^{\infty} x^n$ and I'm not sure how to do that.

Hi tmt! ;)

You have found that if you take the derivative of $\sum x^n$, you get a match for the series.
What do you get if you take the derivative of $\frac 1{1-x}$, which is equal to that series?
 
I've encountered a few different definitions of "indefinite integral," denoted ##\int f(x) \, dx##. any particular antiderivative ##F:\mathbb{R} \to \mathbb{R}, F'(x) = f(x)## the set of all antiderivatives ##\{F:\mathbb{R} \to \mathbb{R}, F'(x) = f(x)\}## a "canonical" antiderivative any expression of the form ##\int_a^x f(x) \, dx##, where ##a## is in the domain of ##f## and ##f## is continuous Sometimes, it becomes a little unclear which definition an author really has in mind, though...

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