High School Differentiating by two different variables -- when is it okay?

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Differentiating terms with respect to different variables is generally not acceptable, but it can be justified in specific cases. In the example from Mary Boas's Mathematical Methods, the equation 1/i + 1/o = 1/f allows for differentiation with respect to both i and o because it can be manipulated to maintain mathematical integrity. By first differentiating the entire equation with respect to o, one can derive a valid expression that maintains equality. This approach clarifies how to appropriately handle multiple variables in differentiation. Understanding these nuances is essential for solving complex mathematical problems effectively.
SamRoss
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I'm working through the problems in Mary Boas's Mathematical Methods text. Here's how she began solving one problem...

"We take differentials of the equation 1/i + 1/o = 1/f (f=constant) to get
-di/i2 - do/o2 = 0."

So on the left side the first term was differentiated with respect to i and the second term was differentiated with respect to o. Why is it okay to differentiate these terms by different variables? I'm only used to differentiating by one variable at a time.
 
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SamRoss said:
I'm working through the problems in Mary Boas's Mathematical Methods text. Here's how she began solving one problem...

"We take differentials of the equation 1/i + 1/o = 1/f (f=constant) to get
-di/i2 - do/o2 = 0."

So on the left side the first term was differentiated with respect to i and the second term was differentiated with respect to o. Why is it okay to differentiate these terms by different variables? I'm only used to differentiating by one variable at a time.
In general it is not OK.
In this case we can justify the step by first differentiating both sides wrt ##o## to get
$$-\frac{\frac{di}{do}}{i^2}-\frac1{o^2}=0$$
then multiply both sides by ##do##
 
andrewkirk said:
In general it is not OK.
In this case we can justify the step by first differentiating both sides wrt ##o## to get
$$-\frac{\frac{di}{do}}{i^2}-\frac1{o^2}=0$$
then multiply both sides by ##do##
I get it. Thanks very much!
 

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