Difficult Zeta Function Proof NEED ANSWER

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on proving that the infinite sum of the nth derivatives of the Riemann zeta function, denoted as sum(n=0 to infinity, (zeta(it))^n), equals zero when it represents the imaginary part of the nontrivial zeros of the Riemann zeta function with a real part of 1/2, such as it=14.134i. The user attempted to utilize the Euler-Maclaurin expansion but encountered difficulties, ultimately reverting to the original equation. The proof requires a deeper understanding of the properties of the Riemann zeta function and its derivatives.

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  • Familiarity with complex analysis, particularly nontrivial zeros
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Homework Statement


Prove that sum(n=0 to infty, (zeta(it))^(n)) equals zero when the variable (it) is the imaginary part of the nontrivial zeros of the Riemann zeta function that have real part 1/2. For example, it=14.134i. Note: n represents the nth derivative of the zeta function.



Homework Equations





The Attempt at a Solution


I tried to approach this problem by expanding using a Euler-MacLaurin expansion, but failed because I obtained the original equation. Any help would be VERY much appreciated.
 
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I really need help in the next hour or so; my proof fell apart at the last minute.
 
I changed the format to make the problem easier to read.

Prove that [tex]\sum_{n=0}^{\infty} f^n(it)[/tex] equals 0 when [tex]it[/tex] is equal to the imaginary part of the zeros of the Riemann Zeta function that have real part 1/2, for example, [tex]it=14.134i[/tex]. Note: [tex]f^n(it)[/tex] is the nth derivative of the Riemann Zeta function
 

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