Dirac delta approximation - need an outline of a simple and routine proof

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SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on proving the identity involving the Dirac delta approximation using a function \(\theta\) that decays faster than any polynomial. The goal is to demonstrate that for a continuous, smooth, and bounded function \(f\), the limit \(\lim_{a \rightarrow 0}\int_{-\infty}^{+\infty} f(x) \frac{1}{a}\theta\left(\frac{x}{a}\right) dx = K f(0)\) holds true. Key observations include the approximation of the integral of \(\theta\) over the entire real line by its integral over a finite interval and the continuity of \(f\) at zero. The proof does not require complete rigor, making it suitable for applications in physics.

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hooker27
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Hi, I need your help with a very standard proof, I'll be happy if you give me some detailed outline - the necessary steps I must follow with some extra clues so that I'm not lost the moment I start - and I'll hopefully finish it myself. I am disappointed that I can't proof this all by myself, but I really need to move on with my work so any help here will be appreciated.

Let [tex]\theta[/tex] be a function that decays faster than any polynomial, is smooth or whatever else is required. Let

[tex]\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} \theta = K[/tex]

I want to show, that for all reasonable [tex]f[/tex] (continuous, smooth, bounded, ... again - whatever is required) the following identity holds

[tex]\lim_{a \rightarrow 0}\int_{-\infty}^{+\infty} f(x) \frac{1}{a}\theta\left(\frac{x}{a}\right) dx = K f(0)[/tex]

In other words - the limit

[tex]\lim_{a \rightarrow 0} \frac{1}{a}\theta\left(\frac{x}{a}\right)[/tex]

is a multiple of Dirac delta, in the sense of distributions. The proof needs not to be 100% precise, even 80% precise, I need it for some little physics paper I write and physicists are seldom 100% precise (in math, anyway), but I need something a little more rigorous than "Let's assume [tex]\theta[/tex] is rectengular..." for which the proof is way too easy.

I appreciate any help, thanks in advance. This is no hw, if it's any important.
 
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What lines of attack have you tried on this? It's hard to give helpful hints without knowing where you're at on the problem!

Anyways, two high-level observations that are almost surely useful to the proof (or at least to the devising of a line of attack) are

[tex]\int_{-\infty}^{+\infty} \theta \approx \int_{-H}^{+H} \theta[/tex]

and

[tex]f(\epsilon) \approx f(0),[/itex]<br /> <br /> capturing the notions that [itex]\theta[/itex] is rapidly decaying and that <i>f</i> is continuous at <i>0</i>, respectively.<br /> <br /> (<i>H</i> is a 'large' positive number, [itex]\epsilon[/itex] is a 'small' positive number)<br /> <br /> <br /> (I use the integral expressing that the tails are irrelevant, rather than something more direct like [itex]\theta(\pm H) \approx 0[/itex], because the integral actually appears in the data you've given)[/tex]
 
Are you sure you don't want [itex]\frac{1}{a}\theta (a x)[/itex]?
 

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